Please explain this clear Bible error.

The Bible contains a multitude of errors.What are you going to do with 1John 5: 7,8 ?The word of God, as possessed by God, obviously contains no errors, but He chose to communicate His word via humans which introduces the fact that He can live with errors and their damage to His word of truth.God knew errors were/are inevitable, He also knows His word is the object of desecration by demon forces, yet, nontheless, IF you study theology seriously with an objective mind you will learn why and where the errors originated, then armed with this knowledge you can teach the ignorant and enlighten them to the truth of God's word and hopefully set them free.

The only problem is that you are ignoring what the KJV says.You are defending inerrancy. Now what do you say to a person who cites this version."Go see the NIV"That is dodging the issue. This is fundementalist buffoonery.Did you know that the Sinaiticus has inumerable spelling errors ?

This is pure atheist revisionist/Talibanic fraud/nonsense.Do you really think an atheist will ever admit to anything that supports Church doctrine ?Of course not !Atheism today simply declares that the apostles/disciples never wrote the N.T.; that they are all forgeries written by literary miscreants using the pseudonyms of the apostles/disciples.There is no evidence supporting this fraud and only "scholars" who do not believe in the existence of miracles subscribe to this blasphemy.How could atheist scholars, or why would atheist scholars ever be trusted to report anything truthful about a religion that they live to destroy ?Atheism today, led by Satan's most productive lie factory, Burton L. Mack, are rampaging against orthodox Catholicism and Protestantism as payback/revenge for pre- 1920's harrassment.Atheists were relentlessly bullied by the Church and now that the pendulum has swung the other way they will out-perform their nemesis and rage against theist machinery at its sources (manuscripts) to exact their demonic revenge.