Please explain this clear Bible error.

Please accept my belated welcome to the forum. This thread appears to be gathering dust at the moment but on reading the above quote I notice what appears to be a misperception of the meaning of the word "scripture." It is, quite simply, an archaic way to speak of anything written. It by no means implies that the thing written is holy, or sacred, or inspired by God.When Paul says that "all scripture is inspired by God" is he talking about his own scripture? If so, wouldn't it be somewhat arrogant of him to put his own preachments on a par with those of Moses and Isaiah? But if he is actually referring to the holy scripture, as it existed in his time, then it becomes doubtful that he is claiming the same august station for his own work.Does this make sense to you?db