You need to narrow this down Jay.
My contribution toward this necessity:
Young Earth understandings of the Bible go elsewhere in the Bible to pick up clues to help them to understand Genesis. By going outside of Genesis to other books of the Bible they determine that the serpent in the garden has something to do with Satan God’s enemy.
The Bible interprets itself. Thats why we need the entire Canon/revelation. Thus your YE remark makes no sense.
The serpent is a type of Satan. All Biblical scholars agree with this typology. Revelation confirms. The point is from Genesis TO Revelation = the reign of Satan up until Michael casts him you know where.
"Do not approach Genesis unless you believe in the supernatural."
In the same way some of us gather from other portions of the Bible that what is discribed as the condition of the earth - “without form and void” indicates previous divine judgement. Separately the words do not always indicate that. But used together elsewhere in the Bible they indicated a previous divine overthrow.
There are two camps concerning these words. The correct camp interprets them
"the earth BECAME a waste and a desolation"
The rendering above is correct for many reasons, mainly:
Genesis 1:28
And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and REplenish the earth
Notice it says REPLENISH the earth and not plenish. This supports the Gap.
“I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, void; and the heavens, and they had no light. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly. I beheld, and , lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled . the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the Lord, and by His fierce anger. For thus hath the Lord said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end” (Jermiah 4:23-27).
Jeremiah uses the exact same phrase as written in Genesis 1:2:
"BECAME a waste and a desolation."
My sources, that is Gap scholars are saying the Hebrew is accurately rendered above and the translation is wrong in the texts.
Now we have Genesis 1 and Jeremiah 4 saying the exact same thing.
The vast gap of time between Genesis 1:1 and 1:2 is in the texts and confirmed by science (immense age of Earth).
If there is a gap then God must have others to confirm His m.o.?
Luke 4:17-19
And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written,
The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
Jesus was quoting/claiming to fulfill Isaiah 61:1,2
However, He stops in mid-sentence and does not say what I have pasted below:
"To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD,
and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn"
Jesus stopped because He was not going to fulfill that part of the prophecy YET.
Between the "acceptable year of the Lord" AND "the day of vengeance of our God" is the gap of time of the Church age.
When He comes back in Revelation; He will come and fulfill the vengeance prophecy against all His enemies who have the mark of the beast.
The point is there is a 2000 year plus gap in the Isaiah prophecy between the two phrases.
Gap theory is a fact = the way the God of the Bible operates.
Ray
™ Version 4.2