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Author Topic:   A Theological Defense of "Gap Theory"
purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3487 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 76 of 144 (285944)
02-12-2006 7:46 AM
Reply to: Message 70 by jaywill
02-11-2006 5:10 PM


Capitalization
quote:
I think that whether or not these words are capitalized is a matter of how the English translators decided to put emphasis on the Hebrew words.
You're right. There was no capitalization in the original Hebrew texts.
No formatting existed in the Original texts. Even though some modern Ministers insist that their Bible is Inerrant perfectly, regarding every punctuation mark, that is not true. Until at least 900 AD, no punctuation marks were included in the Scriptural texts. There were no Verse or Chapter numbers until centuries after that. Actually, prior to about 900 AD, the texts were written in Scriptua continua, where there were no spaces between words or sentences, no capitalization and no punctuation. It must have been extremely hard to read. See the BELIEVE presentation on Translating the Bible to get some idea about all that.
I'm not sure how they determined what was a proper name and what wasn't. Arach would probably know that one.

"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

This message is a reply to:
 Message 70 by jaywill, posted 02-11-2006 5:10 PM jaywill has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 77 by arachnophilia, posted 02-12-2006 9:37 AM purpledawn has not replied

  
purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3487 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 81 of 144 (286094)
02-13-2006 9:39 AM
Reply to: Message 79 by Rrhain
02-12-2006 10:47 PM


Remove the Log
quote:
Incorrect. I was arguing about the logic of your position, pointing out how you had used a logical error (slothful induction). Therefore, your argument fails from the outset. You need to go back and fix the logical error before you can continue.
Remember this is the Bible Study forum and the OP states that:
This will be a theological defense.
In Message 73 you reply to a post that is about a month old and say nothing more than:
Logical error: Slothful induction.
You're starting with the conclusion and doing everything you can to find evidence in favor of it, including denial of evidence against it.
Is this in relation to the one sentence made by jaywill or his entire theological defense?
If your “reasonable approach” leads you contradict what is said in several major areas, I think your reasoning must be a reasoning without God being included in the process.
If it is his statement, then why not explain how, from a theological standpoint, his logic is in error.
If it is his entire theological defense of gap theory, again explain how his logic, from a theological standpoint, is in error.
Where has he denied evidence against his theory?
It doesn't help the discussion progress if you don't make it clear to jaywill where you feel his error lies.

"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

This message is a reply to:
 Message 79 by Rrhain, posted 02-12-2006 10:47 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 86 by Rrhain, posted 02-15-2006 2:18 AM purpledawn has not replied

  
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