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Author Topic:   The timeline of the Bible
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 189 of 316 (504841)
04-03-2009 1:28 PM
Reply to: Message 187 by Rrhain
04-02-2009 3:04 AM


Indeed. That's because it was "the beginning" and thus nothing existed. That is, after all, what "waste and void" means. That is what "beginning" means. The universe starts at "the beginning" and not "later."
No. The two words used in Genesis 1:2 are paired together elsewhere in Scripture and when so indicated a divine overthrow of something.
The words used seprately do not always carry that meaning. But the play on words, something akin to topsy turvy is used to indicate an overthrow.
That overthrow of some previous system is not covered in Genesis.
Something was destroyed.
Rrhain
Incorrect. There was nothing to destroy. If there were, then we wouldn't be at "the beginning" but rather would be "later." But the text specifically and directly describes the timeline as starting from "the beginning."
It was after the beginning. Before the age of geology or Evolution theory some ancient Hebrew readers understood it so. Not only Christians saw that. Some Jewish rabbis used Genesis 1:2 to symbolize the destruction of the temple. At least they applied it in that way.
The Concordant Version, the Recovery Version, and Emphasized Bible translate Genesis 1:2 with "the earth became ...".
Hebrew translater August Dillman translated the passage as "But (then) the earth became waste..."
The Targum of Onkelos in reflecting some rabbinical interpretations of Genesis at end of the first and early part of the second century AD, speaks of the "The earth was tohu and bohu.... the worlds of which it is said that the blessed God created them and destroyed them, and, on that account, the earth was desolate and empty."
The book of Revelation speaks of some horrible creatures unleased upon the surface of the earth in the very last days before the second coming of Christ. Some of us ask "When were these things created? Or when did they come into being?"
A pre-Adamic age which went terribly wrong in rebellion to God, and His subsequent judgment is the probable answer for these leftover mutations, if they be that. A pre-Adamic world would also account for the existence of a lying enemy of God's purpose lurking just outside of Adam's domain seeking to deceive man into joining him in revolt against God's eternal purpose.
Incorrect. It was no more than a day. A literal, 24-hour day. And we are told what happened on that day: Light was created, separating daylight from nighttime, and heaven was created. That is all that happened from "the beginning," which started from nothingness, to the end of the first day.
I see seven typical days of God's restoration and further creation.
The unspecified time from the beginning and the unspecified destruction of whatever preceeded the recovered earth allows for any amount of time to be assumed from the initial creation of the universe.
The first major hint in Genesis that some previous unrecorded events occured is the existence of an enemy and opposer to God in God's paradise.
I think most readers of the Bible probably have this as a first question: "What in the world is this lying serpent doing in what is suppose to be a paradise of God?"
Elsewhere in Scripture we learn of one created perfect in his ways until iniquity was found in him. The ancient history of the enemy of God is not elaborated on in Genesis.
You may not believe this because you under appreciate the unity the revelation of the 66 books of the Bible. You assume that each book stands alone perhaps. Theologians speak of the "plenary" revelation of God. Sometimes the lock is in one place and the key is in another place.
It is tempting to want Genesis to tell us everything about the history of the universe. But the history is not all there. Something happened that caused a judgment which rendered the earth without form and void. These two words in the Hebrew used as a pair indicate judgment and overthrow.
Of course, all that discussion is off-topic. Read the original post. If you want to discuss that, start your own thread.
Maybe I will. Maybe I will find the Gap Theory discussions and bring them back up.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 187 by Rrhain, posted 04-02-2009 3:04 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 194 by Rrhain, posted 04-06-2009 3:31 AM jaywill has replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 192 of 316 (504892)
04-04-2009 8:28 AM
Reply to: Message 190 by Rrhain
04-03-2009 8:48 PM


Um, you do realize that the entire point of this thread is that we do?
Then the entire point is wrong. Do we need another thread to argue that? Your initial point is wrong.
That the Bible says so? That there are specific passages that mention specific periods of time that pass between events and that one of those events can be localized to an actualy known time which means that yes, we can say how long the beginning was.
Some expositors disagree that any gap or interval of time is indicated between verse 1 and 2 of Genesis. The language smoothly proceeds with no implied break in time, they would say. J. Pye Smith's comment is insightful:
1.) "... the first sentence is a simple, independent, all-comprehending axiom, to the effect: that matter, elementary or combined, aggregated only or organized, and dependent, sentient, and intellectual beings have not existed from eternity, either in self continuity or sucession, but had a beginning; that their beginning took place by the all-powerful will of one Being, the self-existent, independent, and infinite in all perfection; and that the date of that beginning is not made known."
2.) "That at a certain epoch, our planet was brought into a state of disorganization, detritus, or ruin, (perhaps we have no perfectly appropriate term) from a former condition."
3.) "That it pleased the Almighty, wise and benevolent Supreme, out of that state of ruin to adjust the surface of the earth to its now existing condition, the whole extending through the period of six natural days. "
John Harris similarly writes:
"On the whole, then, my firm persuasion is, that the first verse of Genesis was designed, by the Divine Spirit, to announce the absoute origination of the material universe by the Almighty Creator; and that it is so understood in other parts of Holy Writ: that, passing by an indefinite interval, the second verse describes the state of our planet immediately prior to the Adamic creation; and that the third verse begins the account of the six days' work."
Concerning the words "passing by an indefinite interval" it is necessary that even a definite interval is sometimes passed by in one breath in God's way of accounting.
I am called away for an errand. I am not finish this reply. I will continue latter. I will provide some examples relevant to the same idea in Genesis 1:1,2.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 190 by Rrhain, posted 04-03-2009 8:48 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 196 by Rrhain, posted 04-06-2009 3:42 AM jaywill has replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 193 of 316 (504902)
04-04-2009 11:32 AM
Reply to: Message 190 by Rrhain
04-03-2009 8:48 PM


Some expositors argue that a necessary connection of short time is implied by the opening word of the second verse "And the earth was waste and voide" Like you they see no possibility of an unspecified interval of time between verse 1 and 2.
However 1 Chronicles 11:1 opens in a similar grammatical way with a interval of seven years preceeding what follows after "[A]nd".
" ... therefore he [Jehovah] slew him, and transferred the kingdom to David the son of Jesse. (10:14)
And all Israel assembled themselves to David to Hebron, saying, Behold, we are thy bone and thy flesh ... (11:1,2a)
The opening of Ezra 7:1 jumps over a time interval of 58 years:
"And [the Jews] held the Feast of Unleavened Bread seven days with joy; for Jehovah had made them joyful and had turned the heart of the king of Assyria to them, to strengthen thier hands in the whole of the house of God, the house of Israel. (5:22)
Now after these things, in the reign of Artaxerxes the kinf of Persia, Ezra the son of Seraiah, ... went up from Babylon." (see Ezra 7:1-6)
The Scripture moves seemlessly over a period of 58 years.
It doesn't mean that nothing else happened in the intervening time.
In these examples the word translated our English And or Now opens a sentence or paragraph or even a chapter with no connection what ever with what went before.
The book of Ezekiel opens that way. "Now in the thirtieth year, ...".
Verse 2 of Genesis cannot be insisted upon to, timewise imediately follow, the event of verse 1.
Rrhain writes:
That must be why Jews, who surely know their own religion better than non-Jews, claim the year is only 5769. The Jewish calendar counts from the beginning.
I told you that we have records that some Jewish rabbis at the end of the first century and beginning of the second century AD understood a interval between Gen. 1:1 and 2. They wrote of the destruction of previous worlds by God. And on that account the earth was found tohu and bohu. The point here is that they were not Christian but Jewish rabbis. Paricularly these teachers were of the influence of Akba ben Joseph the president of the School of Bene Barek near Saffa. This man laid the basis of the Mishna. He was executed in 135 A.D. The quotation that I refered to is traditionally ascribed to one of his disciples, one Simeon ben Jochai.
As you can see this rabbi understood from reading the Hebrew of Genesis that previous worlds were destroyed by God rendering the earth without form and void in verse 2.
" ... These indeed are the worlds of which it is said that the blessed God created them and destroyed them, and, on that account, the earth was desolate and empty."
In his book The Legends of the Jews Louise Ginsberg put into continous narrative a compilation of Jewish traditions from ancient times, as far as possible in the original phrases and terms. In Volume 1 which covers the period from the Creation to Jacob, Ginsburg has this excerpt:
"Nor is this world inhabited by man the first of things earthly created by God. He made several other worlds before ours, but He destroyed them all, because He was pleased with none until He created ours."
I do not insinuate that these traditions and legends carry the authority of the Bible. I only point out that some Jews held to a tradition most based on thier reading of the Scriptures, that previous worlds were overthrown by God before Adam was created.
Yes, I am well aware that there are "interpretations" of the text that try to extend this time period. For example, there are those who claim the "days" of Genesis 1 aren't literal, 24-hour days. I disagree as the text uses phrasing that specifically indicates literal, 24-hour days.
That is the Day Age interpretation which I am not defending because I also understand 7 typical solar days in Genesis 1.
But let us assume that you are correct. Let us assume the 6,000 years ago all the universe with all life was created. I have then some questions for your consideration:
1.) Where did a being come from who was diametrically opposed to God, who lied, who slandered God to Eve, tempting human beings to act independently from God. And that in the Edenic paradise God prepared for Adam.
Is the explanation of such a thing told you in Genesis before chapter 3?
Do you think it is not important to know where and why such a being was there ?
2.) If the prehistory of Abraham in Ur of the Chaldeas is not included in the chronology of Abraham's journeys by the writer of Genesis but if found elsewhere in the Scripture, is it possible that the pre-history a creature's rebellion against God is also found not in Genesis but elsewhere ?
3.) If God created the earth before He created the stars then why is the sequenced reversed in Zechariah 12:1?
"The burden of the word of Jehovah concerning Israel. Thus declares Jehovah, who stretches forth the heavens and lays the foundation of the earth and forms the spirit of man within him."
Here we have the Creator stretching forth the heavens before laying the foundation of the earth. If there is nothing in the heavens it is difficult to imagine what it is that God "stretches forth". I cannot imagine Him stretching forth nothing against nothing.
Incorrect. They are the first days because they start at "the beginning," not "later." The earth doesn't come into existence until the third day, thus there is no previous version that was destroyed.
The dry earth appeared from underneath the water on the third day.
"And God said, Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land appear, and it was so." (Gen. 1:9)
Before the earth was discribed in the condition of without form and void in 1:2 it was created.
Compare this with Psalm 104:5-9:
"He established the earth upon the foundations thereof, That it should not be removed for ever and ever.
With the deep a with a garment Thou didst cover it, above the mountains did the waters stand. At
At Thy rebuke they fled, and at Thy voice of Thy thunder they hasted away-
The mountains rose, the valleys sank-
To the place which Thou hadst established for them.
Thou hast set them a bound which they cannot pass, That they turn not again to cover the earth."
In this Psalm we also see the land beneath the waters being made to rise from them at the command of God. (Psa. 104:5-9)
Me:
and with years dropped from the time the Jews were under foreigners in the days of the Judges.
Rrhain:
Which was incorrect. Even if we grant your false claim, that's still only 30 years. We're still only about 6000 years old.
That comment was firstly - not specifically about creation date but intervals because God did not account some years. It was showed that your style of time measurement is not always the biblcal way according to God's importance put on time.
That comment was about span of 93 years and not 30.
Me:
Taking the book of Genesis, the first calling of Abraham is not recorded.
Rrhain:
Incorrect. Genesis 12 describes it.
Genesis 12:4 So Abram departed, as the LORD had spoken unto him; and Lot went with him: and Abram was seventy and five years old when he departed out of Haran.
According to [b]Acts 7:2-3, God appeared to Abraham in Ur of the Chaldeans an called him to "come out from your land and frm your relatives, and come into the land which I will show you."
This was God's first appearing and calling to Abraham. However, Abraham did not accept God's calling immediately but remained in Ur for some time. After the death of Haran (the brother, not the place of course Gen. 12:28 , God sovereign;u caused his father Terah, to bring the family from Ur to Haran (the place). Therefore it was not Abraham but Abraham's father, Terah, who took the initiativee to leave Ur.
Now in Genesis 12:1 we see God adding in this call that Abraham should leave not only his land and relatives but "your father's house".
This calling of Abraham was after the death of his father Terah in Haran and not in Ur - "And the days of Terah were two hundred five years, and Terah died in Haran."
First calling is in Acts 7:1 - ... The God of glory appeared to our father Abraham while he was in Mesopotamia, BEFORE HE DWELT IN HARAN, [my emphasis] and said to him, "Come out from your land and from your relatives, and come into the land which I will show you."
Then he came forth from the land of the Chaldeans and dwelt in Haran. An from there, after his father died (Gen. 11:31), He removed him into this land, in which you now dwell." (Acts 7:1-4)
So we know that Genesis 12:1 is the subsequent call by God for Abraham to leave also father's house, who died there in Haran.
Abraham was called before he dwelt in Haran in Ur and while he was in Haran after the death of his dad.
In other words, Abraham apparently dragged his feet and God had to remove family members to get the procrastinating patriarch to obey. God also had to work sovereignly to remove him to get him to where he wanted him.
The call of Abraham in Ur of the Chaldeans is not recorded in Genesis.
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
What is recorded in terms of Abraham's being called by God is his calling after he had been removed from Ur of the Chaldeas and settled temporarily in Haran.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
That is the calling. That is the covenant. When Galatians says that the exodus happened 430 years after the covenant, that is the event being referred to.
I'll come back to this point latter.
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Neither do you have all of the historical events related to God's creation of the universe in Genesis.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Incorrect. The text says that the earth didn't exist in the beginning but instead was made on the third day. There was no previous version.
That directly contradicts the text. The earth was created in the beginning.
Where does it say it was created on the third day? It appeared out from underneath the waters on the third day.
And I previously refered to Psalm 104 which strongly implies the same thing.
That isn't an answer. Let's try again, shall we?
So when the text says Adam was 130 when he sired Seth, it isn't true? Adam wasn't 130? How can you
You can try 100 times. It is irrelevant to your erroneous assumption that the Bible allows us in ANY guise to pinpoint when the universe was created whether 6,000 years ago or 7,000 years ago or 10,000 or 100,000 or a many millions or billions of years ago.
What you can insist on is that it all had a BEGINNING. And that was caused by an all powerful God.
How old Adam was when Seth was born has no effect on this unspecified interval of time when the earth was rendered without form and void. And I might add that if the earth was not created until the third day how then could it exist in a state of without form and void ?
Why would it be necessary for God to gather the waters if all He needed to do was create land in the waters as land masses?
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 190 by Rrhain, posted 04-03-2009 8:48 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 197 by Rrhain, posted 04-06-2009 3:50 AM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 198 of 316 (505016)
04-06-2009 3:16 PM
Reply to: Message 194 by Rrhain
04-06-2009 3:31 AM


Do you have any evidence that this is relevant to Gen 1:2?
J.B. Rotherham's footnote to Genesis 1:1 in the Emphasized Bible:
"Heb.: tohu wa-vohu. Evidently an idiomatic phrase, with a play on the sound ("assonance"). The two word soccur together only in Is. xxx14.11 examples which favor the conclusion that here also they describe the result of previous overthrow. Tohu by itself is found in several other texts (Due.xxxii.10; Job xii.24; Ps cvii.40. Is xxiv.10; xxxiv.11
The relevance is that the expression is used elsewhere in Scripture to indicate violent overthrow.
The evidence that God did not create the earth tohu in the beginning could also be derived from Isaiah 45:18. This word, whatever meaning is ascribed to it, cannot be descriptive of the earliest condition of the earth.
For thus says Jehovah, Who created the heavens- He is the God Who formed the earth and made it; He established it;
He did not create it waste [tohu], But He formed it to be inhabited; I am Jehovah and there is no one else." (Isa. 45:18)
God did not create the earth tohu. It became tohu wa-bohu. It became without form and void. The reason it became so is not elaborated in Genesis chapter one.
It is not important to the Divine record at that point to dwell on it.
Incorrect. The use of "tohuw" and "bohuw," especially together, is not indicative of overthrow but rather of non-existence, very much akin to the Greek use of "chaos." It is a way to describe nothingness itself.
We've been over this before.
I think we have been over this before. But the word pair indicative of overthrow. You are saying that Genesis indicating that the non-existent heaven and earth were discribed in verse 2. But somehing clearly exists there or there would be nothing for the Spirit of God to be hovering over - "the face of the deep".
The heaven and the earth are not non-existent there. They are non-existent only before God created the heavens and the earth. And He did so out of nothing.
The first meaning of chaos was a yawning void as a receptical for created matter, as the ancient poet Hesiod wrote around 900 BC. This was the earlier strictest meaning of the word chaos in Greek. Latter the word took on the meaning of a crude and shapeless mass of material out of which the heavens and the earth were supposed to be formed.
Me:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The first major hint in Genesis that some previous unrecorded events occured is the existence of an enemy and opposer to God in God's paradise.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Rrhain:
Incorrect. The serpent is just a serpent. Remember, Genesis was written by Jews, for Jews, and can only be understood in a Jewish context. There is no such thing as the devil in Judaism. There is no "enemy" or "opposer." Even the adversary in the story of Job is an agent of god, not some sort of antithesis to god.
Satan is the Devil. Satan is refered to in a book older than Genesis, Job. And there he obviously is an enemy of God. Why else would he want to induce Job to curse God to his face? That's because he would like to do so.
No friend of God is Satan Rrhain, anywhere in the Bible period.
The Pharisees as practitioners of Judaism accused Jesus of casting out demons by the prince of demons. When Jesus heard this He replied that Satan could not cast out Satan. He was speaking to the typical practitioners of the Jewish religion of His day.
"But the Pharisees, hearing this, said, This man does not cast out the demons except by Beezebul, ruler of the demons.
But knowing their thoughts, He said to them, Every kingdom divided against itself becomes desolate, and every city or house divided against itself will not stand.
And of SATAN casts out SATAN, he is divided against himself. How then will his kingdom stand ?
And if I, by Beezebul, cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast thgem out ? Therefore they shall be your judges." (Matt. 12:24-27)
These Jewish teachers refered to Beelzebul the prince of demons and Jesus replied that Satan could not cast out Satan, then these adherents of Judaism apparently knew about Satan. It seems quite understood that by that time Judiasm had a concept then of:
Satan having a kingdom, a "house", and that he was a ruler of the demons. The reply of Jesus apparently assumes that they understood His logic without further explanation.
So I do not believe you when you say that there was no idea of Satan in Judaism.
You may reason that Genesis was written by Jews for Jews. You should realize that the Gospels were also written by Jews. At least Matthew, Mark, and John were written by Jews.
Lastly, 1000 years to God is only like one day. It makes no difference that Acts was written more than a millennia from the time of the writing of Genesis. God is the ultimate Author of the whole Bible.
His revelation is progressive. His profoundness and the profoundness of His salvation call for a gradual and progressive unfolding of His revelation.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 194 by Rrhain, posted 04-06-2009 3:31 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 201 by Rrhain, posted 04-07-2009 2:33 AM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 207 of 316 (505075)
04-07-2009 7:42 AM
Reply to: Message 202 by Rrhain
04-07-2009 2:37 AM


[off-topic commentary deleted for space]
What are you, the site Moderator of your own thread ?
Pretty convenient for you.
Pretty convenient way to defend your erroneous concepts. Just declare the exposing of them as off topic and irrelevant.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 202 by Rrhain, posted 04-07-2009 2:37 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 212 by Rrhain, posted 04-11-2009 5:13 AM jaywill has replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 208 of 316 (505078)
04-07-2009 7:58 AM
Reply to: Message 1 by Rrhain
02-14-2009 5:34 AM


Now, I know there will be some people who claim that the six days of creation mentioned in Gen 1 aren't literal, 24-hour days, but let's just for the sake of argument say that they are.
Quite aside from the matter of whether the six days are typical 24 hour days (what I believe) or otherwise, the word created is only used in Genesis for a limited number of things:
The heavens and the earth in the beginning, some sea animals, and the creation of Man. Mny more things are said to be formed, shaped or made as from pre-existing matter.
And if Rrhain boasts so much that only the Jews understand Genesis, I would like to know how many orthodox Jewish readers of Genesis would agree with his insistence in a 6,000 year old universe from the text of Genesis.
If there are exceptions and all do not follow Rrhain's concept, then he can't boast that his position is the defacto "Jewish" understanding.
And apparently, the writer of the Targum of Onkelos was a Jew who did not agree with Rrhain's interpretation. And his writings reflected notions of a rabbinic school.
I like these skeptics who try to hide behind a "For Jews Only" barrier around the Hebrew Bible who don't themselves agree with a portion of Jewish scholars on its proper understanding.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by Rrhain, posted 02-14-2009 5:34 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 213 by Rrhain, posted 04-11-2009 5:41 AM jaywill has replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 209 of 316 (505147)
04-08-2009 7:44 AM
Reply to: Message 196 by Rrhain
04-06-2009 3:42 AM


"Only Jewish Interpretations Allowed?"
Are you saying that when Genesis 5 says Adam was 130 when he sired Seth, that was a lie? Adam wasn't 130? That the use of 130 was a metaphor for something else? If so, what was it and where do we find the contextual clues to indicate that meaning?
I am not saying anything about the age of Adam whatsoever. Don't confuse me with someone else.
However I will say this. Even Jewish thought includes a concept that inspite of 24 hour solar days in Genesis, the creation event could have taken place billions of years before the six days.
And here is how some Jewish expositors reason it: They say that the sun was not [created] until the fourth day. So there is no way to assume the length of the previous days. Therefore, the creation of the universe could conceivably be millions or billions of years prior to the "creation" of the sun.
This information came to me in a lecture entitled Introduction to Judaism given by Professor Shai Cherry, the Mellon Assistant Professor of Jewish Thought at Vanderbilt University. His Ph.D in Jewish Thought was received at Brandies University.
His area of expertise is in "the nexus between science and Judaism." according to the lecture notes.
My point here is not whether I agree with the above interpretation or not. My point is that if you are going to attempt to make Genesis "off limits" to non-Jews to interpret, be aware that there are Jewish scholars of Judaism who would not agree that Genesis insists on a 6,000 year old universe.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 196 by Rrhain, posted 04-06-2009 3:42 AM Rrhain has replied

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jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 210 of 316 (505332)
04-10-2009 11:23 AM


Does Gal 3:17 disprove Acts 7:1-3 ?
I promised to return to this point. I said that all of the calling events of Abraham are not recorded in Genesis. Rrhain pointed out that Genesis 12 is the calling and covenant of which the Exodus followed by 430 years. He refers to Galatians chapter 3.
Rrhain:
That is the calling. That is the covenant. When Galatians says that the exodus happened 430 years after the covenant, that is the event being referred to.
Me:
I'll come back to this point latter.
Does the 430 years from God's promise to Abraham in Genesis 12 to the Exodus prove that God did not previously call Abraham while in Ur of the Chaldeans ? No it does not.
I pointed out that all of the details of Abraham's calling is not recorded in Genesis. Therefore, it should be no surprise that other main subjects of creation in Genesis may be found elsewhere in the Bible. I still stand by that.
Rrhain disagrees and argues that the first calling of Abraham occurs in Genesis 12. Rrhain regards the details of Acts 7:2 as some kind of error. But I stand by the fact that Acts 7:2 speaks of Abraham's calling before he left Ur of the Chaldeans and Genesis 12 occurs afterwards.
And he [Stephen] said, Men, brothers and fathers, listen. The God of glory appeared to our father Abraham while he was in Mesoponamia, BEFORE HE DWELT IN HARAN, and said to him, Come out fomr your land and from your relatives, and come into the land which I will show you." (My emphasis) (Acts 7:1-3)
Rrhain responds that Genesis 12 contains the covenant that Paul speaks of preceeding the Exodus by 430 years (Gal. 3:17)
In the sense that the promise of God was latter stengthened into a covenant, that could be stated. However, the covenant that God made occured not in chapter 12 but in chapter 15.
First Galatians 3:17 says:
"And I say this: A covenant previously ratified by God, the law, having come four hundred and thirty years after, does not annul so as to make the promise of none effect." (Gal. 3:17)
And Genesis 15 (not 12) says:
"And when the sun went down and it was dark, there came smoking furnace and a torch which passed between these [animal] pieces. On that day Jehovah made a covenant with Abram, saying, To your seed do I give this land." (Genesis 15:17,18)
This was the actual event of God making a covenant with Abraham out of what was previously a promuise - "On that day Jehovah made a covenant with Abram ..."
God strengthened the promise of chapter 12 with a covenant in chapter 15 because of Abraham's weakness in faith. Notice in chapter 15 Abram expressed his doubts about the previous promise.
"And Abram said, O Lord Jehovah, what will you give me, for I go childless, and the heir of my house is Eliezer of Damascus? And Abram said, Since You have given me no seed, therefore, a servant in my house is my heir....
"Then He [God] said to him, I am Jehovah who brought you out of the land of the Chaldens to give you this land to inherit it.
And he [Abram] said, O Lord Jehovah, how will I know thgat I will inherit it? And He said to him, Bring Me a three-year-old heifer nd a three-year-old female goat ... " (See Genesis 15:1-18)
That day in Genesis 15 rather than in Genesis 12, that "Jehovah made a covenant with Abram ..." The promise in Genesis 12 was strengthened into a contract, a covenant in Genesis 15 due mainly to Abraham's request for assurance.
God did promise the seed and the land in Genesis 12:
"And Jehovah appeared to Abram and said I will give this land. (Gen. 12:7)
God made the covenant proper in Genesis 15. So is Paul speaking of 430 after Genesis 12 or after Genesis 15? I will have to look into that. However, for my larger point it doesn't matter.
Either way it does not prove that there was no previous calling of Abraham while he was in Ur of the Chaldeans. And Acts 7 certainly indicates that God appeared to him before he dwelt in Haran in Genesis 12. Details were scant and to come latter. But the calling of Abraham was clear.
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 Message 215 by Rrhain, posted 04-11-2009 5:58 AM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 216 of 316 (505474)
04-12-2009 7:09 AM
Reply to: Message 212 by Rrhain
04-11-2009 5:13 AM


Yes. If you don't like it, start your own.
I'm still waiting for you to show me where we have a secondary genealogy of Adam such that we can declare that there are skipped generations in it. If you can't do so, just come out and say it.
I don't have to do that. As a matter of fact I think I will continue with just the thought I have been pressing from the beginning.
It makes no difference to the age of the universe in Genesis.
In other words, if anyone wants to know what the Bible says about how long ago the creation came into being out of nothing, geneologies one way or another are irrelevant.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 212 by Rrhain, posted 04-11-2009 5:13 AM Rrhain has replied

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 Message 218 by Rrhain, posted 04-17-2009 4:09 PM jaywill has replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 217 of 316 (505484)
04-12-2009 8:35 AM
Reply to: Message 213 by Rrhain
04-11-2009 5:41 AM


Irrelevant. There is no significance to use the of "bara" that makes it something mystical. The use of "bara" as opposed to "asah" is not indicative of anything special just as English "create," "made," "fashioned," etc. do not indicate anything special.
There may be some overlap in the usage of two words. That does not mean that they are absolutely indentical in every respect. One Rabbi Nachman declares that there is no other word to express production out of nothing besides bara, the word used in Genesis 1:1 and not in ie. Exodus 20:11 where we are told that "in six days God made heaven and earth."
It is not difficult to understand that a human language would not have a verb originally confined to such a meaning as to cause to exist out of nothing. The idea of doing so would not scarcely be conceived by mankind without the assistance of revelation.
For centries philosophers have stated the human thought that nothing is ever gotten out of nothing. It is understood by some that the Holy Spirit of God would select a word for creation out of nothing which had some overlapping use with other words. You do not have a verse which says that God created [bara] the earth in six days.
After all, Genesis 1 uses both words to describe the origin of humans:
Genesis 1:26: va.yo.mer e.lo.him na.a.se a.dam be.tsal.me.nu kid.mu.te.nu ve.yir.du vid.gat ha.yam u.ve.of ha.sha.ma.yim u.vab.he.ma u.ve.khol-ha.a.rets u.ve.khol-ha.re.mes ha.ro.mes al-ha.a.rets:
And God said: 'Let us make man in our image, after our likeness; and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.'
Genesis 1:27: va.yiv.ra e.lo.him et-ha.a.dam be.tsal.mo be.tse.lem e.lo.him ba.ra o.to za.khar u.ne.ke.va ba.ra o.tam:
And God created man in His own image, in the image of God created He him; male and female created He them.
If there were truly some sort of mystical significance to the use of "bara," why would god talk about "making" humans using "asah"?
Firstly, concerning what is not mystical you should also have considered that it is exceedingly practical that the sun and moon were needed to be created [bara] before green vegetation existed. The sun was [asah] made on the fourth day. Green plants were made before that.
So appoint or made is the far less mystical word to apply to the sun on day four rather than create. And it does not say that the sun was created [bara] after the green plants, but that it was made [asah] (Gen. 1:16).
One of the words used to define asah is appoint.
Now Gen 1:26 and 27 has been used to prove exact equivalance in asah and bara. But it is not strong enough for me because God could "appoint" man in His own image when He "created" man.
In other words the two verses could be understood as God desiring to appoint a creature in His own image. So He created man to be the object of that appointment.
In the Old Testament asah is sometimes a part of a personal name. It is rendered appropritely by the English "appointed." In 2 Samuel 2:18 the name Asasel means "God has appointed." In Second Kings 12:14 Asahiah means "Jah has appointed." In First Chronicles 4:35 we have Asihel or "appointed of God."
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible gives a number of meanings of the word "asah", including "appoint", but never the meaning "to create".
So God could accomplish to matters at one time - the creation of man and the appointing of man in His image. That is all Gen. 1:26 and 1:27 reveals in the overlap of asah and bara in relation to man's existence.
Incorrect. Please show me where I have ever said anything that even approaches "only the Jews" understand Genesis.
What I have said, what I have always said, is that Genesis was written by Jews and for Jews and thus can only be understood in a Jewish context. This hardly means that only Jews understand it. It simply means that trying to impose a Christian interpretation on it immediately fails.
No it does not immediately fall. Though I give some relevance to it being written in Hebrew and used before the advent of the New Testament.
Genesis is about the creation of MAN and not simply the creation of Jews. And it may have been written by a Jewish prophet but it is for mankind.
Melchesidek is a non-Hebrew priest of God in the book of Genesis. and Jethro is a non-Jewish priest of God in the book of Exodus. So the books of Moses indicate that God was interested in His relationship with the man that He created in general. So we non-Hebrews have a stake in knowing what God the Creator did and said.
(*chuckle*)
You do understand the difference between "literal" and "metaphorical," yes? At any rate, the answer is that they all agree that the Bible gives a timeline of about 6000 years since, after all, the Jewish calendar (which counts from the beginning of everything) has the year being 5770.
Firstly, I did not intend to mean only Orthodox Jews. That was a mistake.
The professor stated what he did in "Introduction to Judaism". How that relates to different denominations of Judaism I am not aware. But that some Hebrew readers do not interpret the time as you do still stands.
And the Jew Verses Christian concept, I do not like at all. The "One New Man" that the Apostle Paul spoke of as being in Christ has neither Jew nor Greek nor Barbarian, Scythian, slave, freeman, etc. In Christ the cultural barriers have been broken down. But that is another discussion.
Of course, that requires a literal interpretation. I acknowledged this up front. Is there a reason why you keep forgetting this and trying to make it personal?
And since when did Orthodox Judaism become the sole arbiter of Judaism?
They are not the sole arbitrator. And my reference to Orthodox Judaism solely was a mistake I acknowledge. And are you the sole arbitrator of Judaism? Do you claim to speak for the only Jewish way to interpret Genesis chapter one ? Far from it Rrhain.
I don't know what you mean by making it personal. Maybe you mean you are taking it personal.
You have asked me to leave this discussion a few times. I have almost been obligued to do so. But I am reluctant to allow you to shew me off with some erroneous posts of yours. It is not personal. It is a matter of the truth of the Bible.
I think it is a matter of superior or inferior interpretations of Scripture in Genesis. Counting years of the first generations of humans to calculate when the creation came about out of nothing, I think, is the inferior way.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 213 by Rrhain, posted 04-11-2009 5:41 AM Rrhain has replied

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 Message 219 by Rrhain, posted 04-17-2009 4:15 PM jaywill has replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 223 of 316 (505846)
04-18-2009 8:24 AM


I would like to add helpful couple of paragraphs about interpreting the Bible with other parts of the Bible. The purpose of the post is to emphasize that all matters of the subject of time and creation may not be in one place in Scripture, ie. in Genesis.
We have to put portions of the Word together and compare them....God's speaking is not completed through just one text. In the books of the prophets we are told that God's word is "here a little, there a little" (Isa. 28:13). Therefore, no Bible student should interpret a passage according to that passage alone. This is to interpret according to its own interpretation [1 Pet. 1:20]....Here God shows us a principle: We must compare our reading of one passage of the Scriptures with other passages. We cannot base our interpretation on just that text alone. In tackling a teaching found in the Bible, we have to look for explanations of this teaching from other passages of the Bible. This is very important....It is much safer for us to compare one verse with ten other verses. If we can only find five verses, it is better, but not as good as ten verses. The more comparisons we make, the better it is. If there is only one verse that says something, we have to be careful; we cannot build something big upon one isolated instance. Otherwise, we will end up with trouble. It is not very trustworthy to base everything on one verse. In reading the Bible we have to compare. We cannot interpret anything by the text of one passage alone. We must have the confirmation of other passages. (Watchman Nee, The Collected Works of Watchman Nee, Set Three, Volume 54, Section Two, pp. 83-84) [emphasis added]
In studying the Word, one must view things from a broad angle, yet concentrate his study on the detailed points. In studying the Word, we must first find the main highway and deal with the side streets afterward. This does not mean that the small points are not important; it means that we are putting them aside until later. (Watchman Nee, The Collected Works of Watchman Nee, Set Two, Volume 41, Section Two, pp. 49-51) [emphasis added]
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 Message 227 by Rrhain, posted 04-18-2009 1:46 PM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 224 of 316 (505847)
04-18-2009 8:48 AM
Reply to: Message 218 by Rrhain
04-17-2009 4:09 PM


if anyone wants to know what the Bible says about how long ago the creation came into being out of nothing, geneologies one way or another are irrelevant.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
So when the text says that Adam was 130 years old when he sired Seth, it doesn't really mean that?
Shall we spin the merry-go-round another time?
If anyone wants to know what the Bible says about how long ago the creation came into being out of nothing, geneologies one way or another are irrelevant.
There is an unspecified amount of time between what occured Gen.1:1 and 1:2. The earth created became without form and void. Judgment of God fell upon the original creation. How long ago before the Genesis six days, we do not know.
Now I fractured my wrist. So I am very limited here writing with one hand.
As for going around in circles, there is no need to repeat this. How old Adam was at ANY point will not yield the age of the universe in the Bible.

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Replies to this message:
 Message 228 by Rrhain, posted 04-18-2009 1:47 PM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 225 of 316 (505849)
04-18-2009 9:01 AM
Reply to: Message 219 by Rrhain
04-17-2009 4:15 PM


I'm still waiting for you to show me where we have a secondary genealogy of Adam such that we can declare that there are skipped generations in it. If you can't do so, just come out and say it.
In other words you are saying that the ONLY biblical arguments you will acknowledge about the earth's age are geneological arguments.
I think I already exposed the weakness in that prejudiced concept of yours.
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 219 by Rrhain, posted 04-17-2009 4:15 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 229 by Rrhain, posted 04-18-2009 1:48 PM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 235 of 316 (506364)
04-25-2009 3:35 PM
Reply to: Message 233 by Rrhain
04-25-2009 12:58 PM


How does the use of the perfect in the first sentence indicate that the event being described is a different event than the event being described in the second sentence?
Are we back on the time of creation again? Or are we only talking about Adam being 130 years old when someone was born, and so forth ?
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 233 by Rrhain, posted 04-25-2009 12:58 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 237 by Rrhain, posted 04-25-2009 4:23 PM jaywill has not replied

jaywill
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 302 of 316 (509183)
05-19-2009 7:29 AM
Reply to: Message 301 by Rrhain
05-19-2009 3:45 AM


Incorrect. We've been through this already. "Towhu and bowhu" means that it did not exist. That specific phrasing is not indicative of something that already exists but is barren of features but rather is indicative of nothingness itself, very much akin to what Greek means in the use of the word "chaos." In modern English, it has overtones of a morass of actual stuff but without any order, but Greek takes it much further: It is nothingness complete.
If "without form and void" in verse 2 means nonexistence, then what did the Spirit of God hover over? Even more what was the darkness on the surface of?
"But the earth became waste and emptiness, and darkness was on the surface of the deep." (Recovery Version)
Or from the 1901 American Standard if you don't care for my favorite English translation .
"And the earth was waste and void; and darkness was upon the surface of the deep"
Nonexistence would probably mean no darkness. For sure it mean no "surface" of ANYTHING. And it should means no abyss or deep. How does anything hover over the surface of something that does not exist?
We next have "and the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters ..."
It should be clear now, if not before, that "the deep" consists of water. Water is not the substance of nonexistence which has no substance.
"In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth." (v.1) is the only verse in chapter one which speaks of something coming into existence preceeded by nothing or non-existence.
The early Greek meaning of chaos was a empty yawning void as a recepticle of all matter. It latter meant a unformed confusion or mess.
At anyrate the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. The waters is something. And underneath that something something else was made to appear in verse 9 - "And God said, Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together unto one place, AND LET THE DRY LAND APPEAR: and it was so ..." (v.9 my emphasis)
Darkness, the deep (waters) with its surface, and the land hidden under its surface which was made to APPEAR, are things. They are not non-existence.
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