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Author Topic:   Is bacterial resistance really due to mutation?
coffee_addict
Member (Idle past 507 days)
Posts: 3645
From: Indianapolis, IN
Joined: 03-29-2004


Message 9 of 27 (198823)
04-13-2005 12:05 AM
Reply to: Message 6 by Martin245
04-12-2005 10:33 PM


Martin writes:
How can they find that out without killing it?
Easy. Only acquire 1 bacterium. Let it go through mitosis and move some sister cells into another petri dish and start pumping in anti-biotics. If all the sister cells of the original bacterium died, then we know for sure that the original bacterium was not anti-biotic resistant.
The problem I see is not that you or your friends cannot think of methods for such an experiment. The problem I see is that you and your friends have trouble understanding the significance of how bacterial genes work or what mitosis really means.
This is a problem when communicating in layman's terms. The significance and meanings of concepts are lost.

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 Message 6 by Martin245, posted 04-12-2005 10:33 PM Martin245 has not replied

  
coffee_addict
Member (Idle past 507 days)
Posts: 3645
From: Indianapolis, IN
Joined: 03-29-2004


Message 11 of 27 (198831)
04-13-2005 12:27 AM
Reply to: Message 6 by Martin245
04-12-2005 10:33 PM


Actually, going back to your original question, which was how do we know that some kind of change occured, the very fact that you start out with a single bacterium and after it has grown to a culture and at least some of them died as a result of anti-biotics should be enough to show that some kind of change in their genes occured, whether the original bacterium was anti-biotic resistant or not.
Sorry for the long sentence. I don't think it's a run-on, though.

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 Message 6 by Martin245, posted 04-12-2005 10:33 PM Martin245 has not replied

  
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