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Author Topic:   Jesus; the Torah, Nevi'im, and Psalms (Part 2)
ramoss
Member (Idle past 642 days)
Posts: 3228
Joined: 08-11-2004


Message 76 of 233 (207551)
05-12-2005 8:30 PM
Reply to: Message 73 by truthlover
05-12-2005 6:45 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
quote:
It DOES say virgin in the Septuagint. You're right. Isaiah did not say virgin, but the Jews of Alexandria who translated Isaiah into Greek DID say virgin. And the kid born of the virgin would be called "God with us," which is what Emmanuel means. If you believed God's Son was born of a virgin, and you read that in the Scriptures that belong to the physical race of God's Son, then you would be amazed and you would point that out. You would! I'm telling you. And it would encourage you, and it would make you excited, and you would be more affirmed in your faith than ever.
You are incorrect here. The term used was Parthenos. At the time period when Isaiah was translated, it did not nessesarily mean virgin.
It was also used for Dinah, in Genesis, after she was raped.
Homer used it for a non-virgin in the Illiad 2.
Pindar used the word parthenos in reference to a woman who was exposing her child on the mountain. I would think that a woman who
gave birth to a child is not a virgin.

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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1373 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 77 of 233 (207552)
05-12-2005 8:33 PM
Reply to: Message 73 by truthlover
05-12-2005 6:45 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
I'm just saying that there's nothing stopping God from dropping a sentence in there that would later be changed into Greek, and then rather amazingly applied to a rather amazing incident (assuming that incident happened).
yes, but that would not be fulfilling the prophecy. even if it is some amazing mental gymnastics. it's what we were talking about in the last thread: "double fulfillment."
besides, the christian god traditionally works in three's. the jewish god either works in direct pairs, 7's, or 13's.
Again, my one point being that taking one sentence out of context as a prophecy is not intrinsically bad, as has been suggested in this thread
well, yes. it is. because then it's not prophecy. suppose i took this statement out of it's context, and used it to predict some unkown member taking a sentance out of context. how many times has that been fulfilled, would you say? does it mean you were inspired by god to write that?
That's great. I know you don't agree, and I want you to tell me why. I understand that we are arguing (in a nice way, I hope), and I want that to happen. However, the very reason I made the above statement is that I felt like my side of the argument was being assumed away, not argued away.
because it's hard to argue common sense. if god delivers a message to someone, regarding something specific, and that happens, ok. but if someone later writes that something else fulfilled a tiny part of that unrelated to everything else, then it's not ok.
maybe it's foreshadowing. but it's not prophecy.
It DOES say virgin in the Septuagint. You're right. Isaiah did not say virgin, but the Jews of Alexandria who translated Isaiah into Greek DID say virgin
we spent about a month arguing over this in the other thread. i don't want to bring it up again. but we rather conclusively showed that parthenos does not mean virgin. so the septuagint does not say virgin, even if the word means virgin today.
And the kid born of the virgin would be called "God with us," which is what Emmanuel means.
close. "god IS with us." the child in ahaz's time was the sign that the prophesy would come true. the prophesy was that god was on their side of the war, and would win it for them. so naming the child, a time keeping device really, "god is on our side" makes sense.
it doesn't mean "god on earth as a man."
If you believed God's Son was born of a virgin, and you read that in the Scriptures that belong to the physical race of God's Son, then you would be amazed and you would point that out. You would! I'm telling you. And it would encourage you, and it would make you excited, and you would be more affirmed in your faith than ever.
yes, and this is probably why the confusion happened. but a little research, like reading the rest of the chapter, would have cleared that matter up.
But when you say, "It could not have been a prophecy. It makes no sense, and serves no purpose," then I say you've gone too far, and I'm arguing that you've gone too far, but I don't think you've heard me yet.
i argued a few times last thread about how things were not prophecies. this is not to be insulting to the text -- it's to keep respect for it.
psalms are not prophecies. plain and simple. they are psalms. if we found them in the book of the prophets (nevi'im) maybe you could make a case. but psalms are poetry, and rarely about what god will or will not do. usually it's about what god HAS done, who god is, and various praises amd laments.
And my what if is this. If the event is true, and the people who experienced that event find a remarkable reference to the event, out of context, in ancient writings, then then it is reasonable to think that God might have put it there for the encouragement of those who experienced the remarkable event.
but we don't have those events. we have accounts from later authors, and consistently unreliable ones at that. we have matthew saying something happened to fulfill a prophecy that is entirely unrelated. purpledawn suggests he might have been trying to be funny. and that would be one way to do it.
Are they? I don't think they are. I think the writers of the Gospels are describing events first and foremost.
ever read matthew?
They are trying to convert you by the events they describe, and they are adding to the events the prophecies they have found. But the events are first and foremost as proof for them, not the prophecies.
i agree in some cases. but other are clearly manipulating events to fulfill prophecy. like matthew.
As an aside, I think this has no merit, because it makes no sense historically. If it was a satire, then NO ONE got it,
how do you know? maybe a bunch of the jews it was addressed to got a real kick out of it.
because no enemies of Christianity picked it up to use it against them
really? pay attention to this board much? i know i've made the two-donkeys-from-zechariah point a number of times.
and Christians made it one of their cornerstone books.
*shrug* i could make some kind of derrogatory statement here, but i won't. it'd be uh, unchristian.
It would make it the most unsuccessful satire in history.
i'm sure i could find ones equally as unsuccessful. like i think swift's modest proposal (the one about eating babies) didn't go over too well.

אָרַח

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Replies to this message:
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macaroniandcheese 
Suspended Member (Idle past 3957 days)
Posts: 4258
Joined: 05-24-2004


Message 78 of 233 (207559)
05-12-2005 8:47 PM
Reply to: Message 44 by doctrbill
05-10-2005 1:38 PM


Re: New Testament Authors
fortune cookie?

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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1373 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 79 of 233 (207579)
05-12-2005 10:58 PM
Reply to: Message 76 by ramoss
05-12-2005 8:30 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
i really don't think we should get into isaiah 7:14 again here.

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doctrbill
Member (Idle past 2794 days)
Posts: 1174
From: Eugene, Oregon, USA
Joined: 01-08-2001


Message 80 of 233 (207580)
05-12-2005 10:59 PM
Reply to: Message 73 by truthlover
05-12-2005 6:45 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
truthlover writes:
... the physical race of God's Son,
That's an interesting statement which I've never heard before: "the physical race of God's son." My first impulse is to imagine that that it would also be the "physical race" of God. But then God has no physical being, yes?
I think you know that the answer to this question must be NO, unless the person seen by Abraham and Moses was actually "God the Son" and not the Father God (as my former church teaches). But that blows the whole "incarnation" fantasy doesn't it? If Jesus had a physical body before he was born of Mary then the baby gets thrown out with the bath water. Yes?
... there is no proof whatsoever that Isaiah 7:14 was fulfilled in Jesus. There is no proof whatsoever that Isaiah 53 was fulfilled in Jesus. There is no proof that Prov 8:22 or Ps 45:1 or the passage where God promised David a house long into the future through his Son (one of my favorites, and one I definitely believe was an on-purpose prophecy of Christ by God) was fulfilled in Jesus.
I find it interesting that you cite a number of passages by book, chapter and verse; except that one which you "definitely believe was an on-purpose prophecy of Christ by God."
Why not reference that passage so we can examine it here?

Theology is the science of Dominion.
- - - My God is your god's Boss - - -

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doctrbill
Member (Idle past 2794 days)
Posts: 1174
From: Eugene, Oregon, USA
Joined: 01-08-2001


Message 81 of 233 (207591)
05-12-2005 11:54 PM
Reply to: Message 71 by Phat
05-12-2005 10:34 AM


Re: prophecy in general
Phatboy writes:
... without the presupposition of the need for impartation of Spirit in our lives, what difference does it make what they were talking about?
If you mean: "What's the difference if we can't breathe," then yes, I'd have to agree.
For that is the literal meaning and primary definition of the word: "spirit."
If you mean: "What's the difference if we have no zest for life," then again, I'd have to agree with you.
For that is a metaphorical meaning and secondary definition of the word: "spirit."
If you mean: "What's the difference if we have nothing to smoke," then I would have to say,
"Try spirits instead."
When you strip the essence of the living Christ out of prophecy, all that you have left is a bunch of esoteric mumblings about thus and such.
You need to know that every king of Israel was called the Christ. This is clear in the Septuagint and in the Vulgate. Modern Bibles have removed Christ from the Old Testament by means of selective translation. First replace Christ where the word has been removed and then see what needs to be done.
I can "prophesy" one outcome of such an undertaking: The political nature of Christianity will be clear and the significance of expressions like: "LORD Jesus," and, "King Jesus," will be plain, even to those who call themselves "Christian."
What difference would it make what the scriptures actually mean't were they only localized gossip?
The fact that they were localized does not strip them of significance; and I think 'gossip' is a harsh characterization of the timeless, universal, and passionate drama that is the story of Jesus.
db

Theology is the science of Dominion.
- - - My God is your god's Boss - - -

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purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3487 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 82 of 233 (207724)
05-13-2005 10:39 AM
Reply to: Message 73 by truthlover
05-12-2005 6:45 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
quote:
I'm just saying that there's nothing stopping God from dropping a sentence in there that would later be changed into Greek, and then rather amazingly applied to a rather amazing incident (assuming that incident happened).
Apply that to Micah 2 which is what we are discussing. See Message 55
How long are believers supposed to follow assumptions?
quote:
Again, my one point being that taking one sentence out of context as a prophecy is not intrinsically bad, as has been suggested in this thread.
How about taking over 200 sentences out of context?
quote:
That is why I have twice said, "My one point is that a one-line prophecy, pulled out of context, centuries after the prophecy was given, can have a purpose and could be of God."
If the event happened, if the authors wrote of a true event, if what they wrote is true, then quite frankly the little baby that died from an infection recently should not have died. The child's parents believed and prayed for a healing. They did not take the child to a doctor. They believed what the authors claimed about healing.
The proof is in the pudding!

"The average man does not know what to do with this life, yet wants another one which lasts forever." --Anatole France

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Replies to this message:
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truthlover
Member (Idle past 4089 days)
Posts: 1548
From: Selmer, TN
Joined: 02-12-2003


Message 83 of 233 (207750)
05-13-2005 12:48 PM
Reply to: Message 74 by arachnophilia
05-12-2005 8:00 PM


Re: Professional Prophets
is there a reference in the other mosaic books?
The earlier books say Moses is more than a prophet.
quote:
Num 12:6,7: If there be a prophet among you, I, Yahweh, will make myself known to him in a vision and will speak to him in a dream. My servant Moses is not so...with him I will speak mouth to mouth, apparently, and not in dark speeches, and he will behold the likeness of Yahweh.

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truthlover
Member (Idle past 4089 days)
Posts: 1548
From: Selmer, TN
Joined: 02-12-2003


Message 84 of 233 (207756)
05-13-2005 1:04 PM
Reply to: Message 77 by arachnophilia
05-12-2005 8:33 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
Ok, your post was very clear. I'm willing to leave things where they are, because we're not going to convince each other, and that's not necessarily what we're trying to do, anyway. I think my case is stated as thoroughly as I can, and I'm not giving any new arguments in this post.
I do want to highlight what I think the major disagreements were, though, and what I'm "resting my case" on, without rehashing any of the arguments.
we spent about a month arguing over this in the other thread. i don't want to bring it up again. but we rather conclusively showed that parthenos does not mean virgin. so the septuagint does not say virgin, even if the word means virgin today.
I didn't read the other thread, so I didn't know that. Sorry. However, my point would be unchanged if Parthenos even could mean virgin as one of its meanings at the time that Christians were using it as prophecy.
suppose i took this statement out of it's context, and used it to predict some unkown member taking a sentance out of context.
Well, this isn't what I'm talking about, so it wouldn't matter. I'm talking about a major event (like a virgin birth!) being described, out of context in just one sentence, and it being noticed AFTER the event happened.
then it's not prophecy
Right, I guess we leave it there, because I think it is.
because it's hard to argue common sense. if god delivers a message to someone, regarding something specific, and that happens, ok. but if someone later writes that something else fulfilled a tiny part of that unrelated to everything else, then it's not ok.
To you, that's common sense. To me, and to the thousands of people who comprised the early church, it's not common sense. But again, I think we've presented our cases as thoroughly as we're going to on that.
a little research, like reading the rest of the chapter, would have cleared that matter up.
If you thought it was necessary, which is what we're disagreeing on.
side notes not on main subject
ever read matthew?
Surely at least 25 times, probably more. You don't agree describing events is his primary purpose? It's a biography, basically. Aren't all biographies descriptions of events primarily?
other are clearly manipulating events to fulfill prophecy. like matthew
You think he's manipulating events to fulfill prophecy. A lot of people would agree with you. I don't, but since that has nothing to do with anything I'm discussing, I'll just stay out of that.
really? pay attention to this board much? i know i've made the two-donkeys-from-zechariah point a number of times.
This isn't what I was talking about. I was talking about an opponent of Christianity near the time of Matthew using Matthew as an argument against Christians by saying, "This book is a satire, and these stupid Christians can't tell." If it's a satire, no one noticed for centuries and centuries. No one.

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truthlover
Member (Idle past 4089 days)
Posts: 1548
From: Selmer, TN
Joined: 02-12-2003


Message 85 of 233 (207760)
05-13-2005 1:13 PM
Reply to: Message 80 by doctrbill
05-12-2005 10:59 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
I find it interesting that you cite a number of passages by book, chapter and verse; except that one which you "definitely believe was an on-purpose prophecy of Christ by God."
I couldn't remember where it was, and the others I knew by heart.
The direct quote that's in Hebrews is in Heb 1:5, and it's from 1 Chronicles 17:13. The whole chapter, though, is what I'm referencing.
Why not reference that passage so we can examine it here?
It wasn't a topic for this thread to me. It might seem like it, but since my argument was that God drops prophecies into writings that even the writer didn't know about, and that this was a legitimate form of prophecy, and no one appears to agree with that here, why debate a specific prophecy when the form of prophecy I have suggested has been rejected? The specific prophecy has to be rejected with the form it belongs to.
I only mentioned believing that prophecy, because I had already said I doubted the virgin birth. I didn't want to sound like I was just discussing a form of prophecy even I didn't believe. I do believe in the prophecy I was discussing, and 1 Chr 17 is a place I think it happened. It seems right to let those I am debating know where I'm coming from so they can better assess my arguments, especially across internet where we can't see each others faces & body language.

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Replies to this message:
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truthlover
Member (Idle past 4089 days)
Posts: 1548
From: Selmer, TN
Joined: 02-12-2003


Message 86 of 233 (207767)
05-13-2005 1:37 PM
Reply to: Message 82 by purpledawn
05-13-2005 10:39 AM


Re: Micah 5:2
I'm terribly sorry; I missed your post 55. Never saw it.
This is a conversation that neither the author nor Jesus could have overheard. Even the Magi don't appear to be privy to this discussion. This is a fabricated conversation.
Maybe. But maybe not. Matthew's writing maybe sixty years after the events, assuming they happened. If they happened, then a lot of little children were killed in Bethlehem. The death of the children would arouse enough why questions for the story to be public.
Your posts are full of if's and maybe's.
And if yours aren't, then I would add that to my case. We are discussing history, and we are discussing prophecy. There have been statements by Arach about what is and isn't prophecy, but who can define prophecy authoritatively.
I'm sorry, but I think the if's and maybe's are, more often than not, the only appropriate way to discuss history and prophecy.
How about taking over 200 sentences out of context?
We're not talking about taking 200 sentences out of context. We are talking about one verse, and we are ignoring its context.
Oh, wait. Do you mean all the things Christians call prophecy that are one liners pulled out of context? I don't know if there are 200 of them that I would consider out of context, but since I think pulling a sentence out of context when it's fulfilled centuries later is perfectly okay, then whether 1 or 200, it's no problem to me.
If the event happened, if the authors wrote of a true event, if what they wrote is true, then quite frankly the little baby that died from an infection recently should not have died. The child's parents believed and prayed for a healing. They did not take the child to a doctor. They believed what the authors claimed about healing.
The proof is in the pudding!
I don't understand your point here. I quite agree with this. If a person believes that all prayers prayed in what we think is faith are answered, then that person is wrong. No if's or maybe's there. Children die of head injuries while we pray our guts out for them, in as much faith as we can. Been there, done that, have the scars on my heart. I totally agree that's proof in the pudding.
On the other hand, I've also prayed for a child with an eye infection who had already lost sight in one eye and was losing sight in the other at my sister's request and been answered. Months in the hospital reversed in a couple days after our prayer. My nephew, Joseph Wood. Not something that happened somewhere to someone else. Proof's in the pudding there, too.
I think we have a King, Jesus Christ, and a spiritual kingdom. I think it is awe-inspiring, and I'm confident I'm right, because it does inspire awe in almost everyone who experiences it. Proof's in the pudding. It's small, so that won't convince the whole world right now, because it's just a village; just 200 people. It's in a growth spurt again, though, and time will let us test the pudding.
I mention that, because I think he's a king, and I think he has a legitimate kingdom, which applies to Micah 5:2. Micah 5:2 means something to me, because I believe in a spiritual Israel, and I believe in it's spiritual king.
Where his kingom appears, it's pretty extraordinary. Of course, that means I also believe that the church on the street corner has nothing at all to do with the king or his kingdom, because it's not extraordinary at all. I would never cite it as proof of anything, because the proof is indeed in the pudding.
Since they found the source of his birth in Micah, wouldn't they expect the Christ to fulfill the rest of the prophecy in Micah?
No, not necessarily.
What prophecy told them what the Christ would be doing after he was born?
None. The prophecies I'm talking about are for believers, and they are for after the events. Christ's deeds showed them what he would be doing after he was born.
The author of Mark doesn't mention Bethlehem (neither does Paul) and makes it known that Nazareth is the hometown of Jesus.
This is a very good point. This sort of argument matters to me a lot.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 82 by purpledawn, posted 05-13-2005 10:39 AM purpledawn has replied

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doctrbill
Member (Idle past 2794 days)
Posts: 1174
From: Eugene, Oregon, USA
Joined: 01-08-2001


Message 87 of 233 (207791)
05-13-2005 2:38 PM
Reply to: Message 85 by truthlover
05-13-2005 1:13 PM


Another Son of God?
truthlover writes:
It wasn't a topic for this thread to me.
This is a continuation of the thread re: whether the Old Testament predicts Jesus. I take it you believe it does.
... why debate a specific prophecy when the form of prophecy I have suggested has been rejected?
What you call a 'form of prophecy' I call quoting out of context. It's a colorful technique for spicing up speeches but it's not a path to knowledge. The details of the prophecy you cite make clear that it was fulfilled long ago in someone other than Jesus and that Jesus fulfilled none of the elements of that prophecy.
The direct quote that's in Hebrews is in Heb 1:5, and it's from 1 Chronicles 17:13. The whole chapter, though, is what I'm referencing.
Let's look at the part from Hebrews.
"For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?" Hebrews 1:5 KJV
The writer quotes from many places in his construction of this chapter but at verse 5 he is quoting from two places: Psalm 2:7 and 1 Chronicles 17:13. These, and the rest of his quotes, are from passages which deal with recognized kings (all of whom were considered to be sons of God).
The 'prophecy' of 1 Chronicles 17:13 -- "I will be his father, and he shall be my son: ..." 1Chronicles 17:13 -- is reiterated at 22:9,10 where it gives us the name of the son in question, which is: Solomon. The son of God mentioned in this 'prophecy' does the things which the prophecy predicts he will. Jesus did none of those things.
I believe Paul was promoting the idea of King Jesus; reminding people that Israel's king is a son of God and stands in the place of God.
He also seems to be saying that kings outrank angels.

This message is a reply to:
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purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3487 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 88 of 233 (207885)
05-13-2005 7:23 PM
Reply to: Message 86 by truthlover
05-13-2005 1:37 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
quote:
Maybe. But maybe not. Matthew's writing maybe sixty years after the events, assuming they happened. If they happened, then a lot of little children were killed in Bethlehem. The death of the children would arouse enough why questions for the story to be public.
Yes it would have and yet Josephus (37-100? CE) doesn't mention it among the atrocities of Herod.
quote:
If a person believes that all prayers prayed in what we think is faith are answered, then that person is wrong. No if's or maybe's there.
You can say that with authority but claim that no one can define prophecy with any authority.
quote:
There have been statements by Arach about what is and isn't prophecy, but who can define prophecy authoritatively.
quote:
The prophecies I'm talking about are for believers, and they are for after the events.
I guess the question is believers in what or who?
You've provided nothing more than historical possibilities.
Dr. Robert Miller, The Jesus Seminar and Its Critics
The concept of possibility is not very helpful in historical matters. Endless historical scenarios can be concocted, and virtually all of them are possible, even the weirdest and most fantastic. That's why to say that a certain scenario is possible almost always is to say nothing about it at all.
...But it's crucial to make the distinction between possibility and probability because very different criteria apply in each case. To be historically possible, something only needs to be imaginable. However, for something to be historically probable means that there is some evidence for it. Not everyone in the historical Jesus discussion seems aware of this distinction, for we often read statements like "Isn't it possible that Jesus...?" Fill in the blank with any scenario you like, no matter how you like: the answer will always be yes.
Personally I want to know what is historically probable. Evidence so far doesn't support the probability of these one-liners having a second meaning outside the main prophecy.

"The average man does not know what to do with this life, yet wants another one which lasts forever." --Anatole France

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truthlover
Member (Idle past 4089 days)
Posts: 1548
From: Selmer, TN
Joined: 02-12-2003


Message 89 of 233 (208053)
05-14-2005 11:23 AM
Reply to: Message 88 by purpledawn
05-13-2005 7:23 PM


Re: Micah 5:2
You can say that with authority but claim that no one can define prophecy with any authority.
Of course, the two things have nothing to do with one another.
Personally I want to know what is historically probable. Evidence so far doesn't support the probability of these one-liners having a second meaning outside the main prophecy.
Ok, great. I'm not up to taking on the probability of Jesus being who Paul and others of his time said he was. That's an incredibly long discussion, that concerns far more than the verses from the OT quoted in the NT. It involves history and personal experience.
That's a legitimate discussion. But I didn't volunteer for it, because it's more than I can take on. I only addressed one thing, which is pertinent to this thread, which is your statement that it is intrinsically wrong to pull a verse out of context and use it as prophecy.
I have presented my case for that, and I think I presented it pretty thoroughly. Y'all didn't accept it, but for me, I'm happy enough that it's out there, and I think my argument has validity. That's the only argument I wanted to present.
Unfortunately, that meant I spoke only of historical possibilities, not probabilities. Moving them to probabilities in your mind is probably impossible. Explaining why they are probabilities in my mind for others who might be convinced is a bigger task than I can take on right now.
So, just possibilities being mentioned here, and I think they were valid to my one point (that pulling one-liners out of old books can be legitimate prophecy, if there are current events that match those one liners), and I think my point was on topic. I don't want to move on to another point.
You said, "Evidence so far doesn't support the probability of these one-liners having a second meaning outside the main prophecy." Ok, I'll leave it at that.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 88 by purpledawn, posted 05-13-2005 7:23 PM purpledawn has not replied

  
truthlover
Member (Idle past 4089 days)
Posts: 1548
From: Selmer, TN
Joined: 02-12-2003


Message 90 of 233 (208058)
05-14-2005 11:37 AM
Reply to: Message 87 by doctrbill
05-13-2005 2:38 PM


Re: Another Son of God?
The 'prophecy' of 1 Chronicles 17:13 -- "I will be his father, and he shall be my son: ..." 1Chronicles 17:13 -- is reiterated at 22:9,10 where it gives us the name of the son in question, which is: Solomon.
This is why I figured we wouldn't discuss specifics. This is your argument against it, to which I can only say what I've been saying. It doesn't matter that it applied to Solomon then. It also applies to Jesus centuries later.
He also seems to be saying that kings outrank angels.
I'm surprised to hear you suggest Paul wrote Hebrews, but whether he did or didn't, the writer of Hebrews believes far more than that all kings are sons of God. He's saying Jesus specifically outranks angels, and not all kings.
The son of God mentioned in this 'prophecy' does the things which the prophecy predicts he will. Jesus did none of those things.
Let's see:
"Also I will ordain a place for my people Israel, and will plant them, and they shall dwell in their place, and shall be moved no more; neither shall the children of wickedness waste them any more, as at the beginning."
You're right, that hasn't happened yet. I have reason to believe it will, but I won't ask you to believe that till you see it.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 87 by doctrbill, posted 05-13-2005 2:38 PM doctrbill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 93 by doctrbill, posted 05-14-2005 4:38 PM truthlover has replied

  
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