That means if the woman in John 8:3-11 was not a decendant of Abraham she was not under the law.
The Scripture refers to her only as woman.
And if she was not under the law the law could not be applied.
Are you saying that the commandments only apply to Jews?
Are you saying that if a non-Jew commits adultery that this is not an immoral act according to the bible?
Can you clarify as I am sure that this is not what you are saying despite how it sounds.