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Author | Topic: 51 scientific facts that disprove the Bible | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Peg Member (Idle past 4960 days) Posts: 2703 From: melbourne, australia Joined: |
i dont have a problem with them saying it was around 6,000 years ago
what is important is that they are saying all languages can be traced back to an original language.
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Peg Member (Idle past 4960 days) Posts: 2703 From: melbourne, australia Joined: |
i have no issue with that in the slightest
there are different schools of thought in all diciplines...the truth is likely to be somewhere in the middle
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Nighttrain Member (Idle past 4024 days) Posts: 1512 From: brisbane,australia Joined: |
there are different schools of thought in all disciplines...the truth is likely to be somewhere in the middle
Even in the multitude of Bibles?
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PaulK Member Posts: 17828 Joined: Member Rating: 2.5 |
quote: You gave a quote that did not support your claim. Your quote dealt only with the Indo-European language family. As I told you. So are you going to support the claim that you actually made or retract it ?
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Peg Member (Idle past 4960 days) Posts: 2703 From: melbourne, australia Joined: |
Pg 28.
The Common Tongue. There is no recorded history - that is, no written text - that goes back more then 5,000 years, which is a mere blink of the eye in the timescale of human existence... pg31. 'the languages of Europe and northern India can be arranged in a kind of family tree that goes back to a single Proto-Indo-European predecessor...'At some point, ALL indo europeans spoke the same language and at some later point various groups must have spread across Europe in one of the great undocumented migrations of prehistory' they have a timeline of the evolution of language... it begins at 4,000BCE with 'Speakers of the Proto-Indo-European are living someewhere in the Black Sea region' 3,000BCE - 'the westward migration of the Indo European people begins 2,000BCE - A separate Indo-European group moves south thru Persia and into the Indian subcontinent' from here on various other types of languages appear in various places. perhaps it would be better if you find the book and read it yourself...i could be reading it all wrong but it seems to me to be saying that all language originated with the PIE and spread out from there.
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PaulK Member Posts: 17828 Joined: Member Rating: 2.5 |
Maybe you should try reading it. I've bolded the bits you seem to have missed:
pg31. 'the languages of Europe and northern India can be arranged in a kind of family tree that goes back to a single Proto-Indo-European predecessor...'At some point, ALL indo europeans spoke the same language and at some later point various groups must have spread across Europe in one of the great undocumented migrations of prehistory'
As I said it deals only with the Indo-European languages. There are plenty of others (even in Europe there's the Basque language). Most of the Middle-eastern languages aren't part of that family at all ! (Persian is Indo-European, but that's the biggest exception).
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Peg Member (Idle past 4960 days) Posts: 2703 From: melbourne, australia Joined: |
the timeline they've charted begins at 4,000 bce with Proto-Indo-European and extends from there
i dont know, i didnt write the book, im just reading it.
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PaulK Member Posts: 17828 Joined: Member Rating: 2.5 |
The book clearly states that it is talking about the Indo-European languages, which are those of Northern India and Europe. It's in your quotes.
Your claim was about all languages, which includes all those in the rest of the world - Africa, most of Asia, the Americas and Australasia.
quote: If you wrote the book you wouldn't be misreading it in the way that you are.
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lyx2no Member (Idle past 4747 days) Posts: 1277 From: A vast, undifferentiated plane. Joined: |
Scientifically it is possible, its called cloning. A clone is identical to the original. One can't clone a female from a male. And it would be very much easier to convert a female rib into a male. Genesis 2 17 But of the ponderosa pine, thou shalt not eat of it; for in the day that thou shinniest thereof thou shalt sorely learn of thy nakedness. 18 And we all live happily ever after.
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Modulous Member Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined:
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Preposterous. These people are materialistic linguists with an agenda. I've never seen a French verb turn into a Spanish Noun. You can wait 4,000 years if you want and it'll never happen.
As if finding evidence of common ancestry is evidence that languages have changed so that German can become Indian! Nonsense and silliness. How can we teach this to our kids? You know that 200 years ago linguists said some things which today no modern linguist will defend???
the languages of Europe and northern India can be arranged in a kind of family tree that goes back to a single Proto-Indo-European predecessor Anybody can make a family tree of anything. I can make a family tree so that Navajo is the brother of English - it doesn't mean anything. What if I made a family tree of cutlery? Would that prove that a fork can turn into a spoon?
great undocumented migrations of prehistory Why do lingualutionists always rely on baseless assertions - this just shows them for what they are! Undocumented indeed! How do they know then? And where do these lingualutionists think that languages came from in the first place? How can they have any 'so-called theory of lingual common ancestry' until they have observed a new language springing into existence in a labarotory? And even then - how would they know that that happened in history - we can't observe history!!!!! Actually, that was kind of fun, I can see why evolution deniers do it now: I didn't have to waste any time checking my post was consistent with those pesky facts.
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deerbreh Member (Idle past 2923 days) Posts: 882 Joined: |
A clone is identical to the original. One can't clone a female from a male. And it would be very much easier to convert a female rib into a male. Easier but still very difficult. Which is why if the virgin birth had happened, Jesus would either been female or a haploid male (occurs in bees but not mammals).
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined:
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Why do lingualutionists always rely on baseless assertions - this just shows them for what they are! Undocumented indeed! How do they know then? And they weren't there to see it. Nobody has seen the micro change of a single word into another kind of word, to say nothing about the macro change (that is pure theory, as there is no evidence for it) of one language into another. This is all based on belief, just like religion. Enjoy by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. • • • Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click) • • •
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kuresu Member (Idle past 2543 days) Posts: 2544 From: boulder, colorado Joined: |
You know, in swedish we've moved from saying "I skolen" to "Ni skall" to "Du ska". All in the last 60 years, no less.
Oh, it basically means "you will". What was that about not witnessing micro-change? If necessary, I can point you to texts that use the three forms, though the second two or more or less contemporary, depending on whether you're speaking, writing, and the level of formality.
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Huntard Member (Idle past 2325 days) Posts: 2870 From: Limburg, The Netherlands Joined: |
That doesn't prove macro change though, that's just pure hogwash, has never been observed, can't be recreated in a lab and it certainly isn't science!
I hunt for the truth
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xongsmith Member Posts: 2587 From: massachusetts US Joined: Member Rating: 7.0 |
RAZD writes: Nobody has seen the micro change of a single word into another kind of word, to say nothing about the macro change (that is pure theory, as there is no evidence for it) of one language into another. This is all based on belief, just like religion. Ya just hafta grok up to the fact that verbing weirds words. - xongsmith
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