Hi all,
I am new posting to the forum but I have been reading for awhile. This is my first post. I thought this question was interesting because of its implications to the 'creation must have a creator' argument. I may be answering a question with a question but does a law of physics in our universe now necessarily apply to some theoretical universe prior to the big bang? If my basic understanding of the creation of the universe is correct then there was not even time prior to the big bang. Please forgive me if I am wrong or misstating something about the big bang.
Some more related questions:
1. Why does the universe have as much matter/energy as it does if it is constant?
2. What does it even mean to exist if there is no 4th dimension of time?
These are the things that some of my friends and I talk about over a game of pool downtown. I hypothesize that we will probably never be able to answer these questions and the laws of physics as we known them really only apply to the universe post big bang.