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Author Topic:   Genesis 1 and 2: The Difference Between Created and Formed
arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 22 of 210 (319016)
06-08-2006 8:48 AM
Reply to: Message 7 by Faith
06-07-2006 11:33 PM


post retracted
added by edit: sorry pd, saw the message after the post.
Most literalists I'm aware of, including myself, believe that the Bible is word-for-word exact only in the originals.
do you believe that the originals still exist? what do you consider "the originals," exactly? the earliest complete form of the old testament as it is now, and the earliest complete form of the new testament as it is now? or the first incarnations of texts that make it up? or the individual source documents prior to being editted together, in the case of genesis/exodus/numbers?
i don't mean any form of attack here, i'm just curious.
I still think the KJV is the best to date, but its archaic language has to be continually updated. The Bible has to be read in the language people actually speak or it's useless.
i do think the kjv is a pretty good translation -- if you can get over the language issue. but it has other problems, too, as does every other translation. and the point you make is a good one: the bible has to be in the vernacular of the time and place, or people miss the message.
Edited by arachnophilia, : post retracted.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 23 of 210 (319020)
06-08-2006 8:58 AM
Reply to: Message 17 by CK
06-08-2006 5:25 AM


quote:
Besides, I haven't seen any language but English on this site anyway
No one of the members speaks hebrew and might want to use the original terms rather than their translations.
you mean me? i don't actually speak hebrew (fluently) but i do know a little. but i have run into two (former?) members that did speak hebrew. one was fairly new and from israel, and the other was amlodhi.
anyways, i'm not sure the hebrew would say anything the english doesn't, because the translation of to "created," to "formed," and to "made," is fairly strictly literal and consistent.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 25 of 210 (319027)
06-08-2006 9:28 AM
Reply to: Message 1 by Teets_Creationist
06-07-2006 7:51 PM


synonyms, even in the kjv
quote:
Isa 43:7
Even every one that is called by my name:
for I have created him for my glory,
I have formed him;
yea, I have made him.
quote:
Isa 45:18
For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens;
God himself that formed the earth and made it;
he hath established it, he created it not in vain,
he formed it to be inhabited:
"I am the LORD; and there is none else."
quote:
Psa 95:5
The sea is his, and he made it:
and his hands formed the dry land.
quote:
Isa 27:11
When the boughs thereof are withered, they shall be broken off:
the women come, and set them on fire:
for it is a people of no understanding:
therefore he that made them will not have mercy on them,
and he that formed them will shew them no favour.
quote:
Isa 44:2
Thus saith the LORD that made thee,
and formed thee from the womb, which will help thee;
Fear not, O Jacob, my servant;
and thou, Jesurun, whom I have chosen.
quote:
Isa 45:7
I form the light, and create darkness:
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
although not in hebrew, since you're concerned with english:
quote:
Rom 9:20
Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
one has to understand the structure of hebrew poetry. one line often repeats the next, in very similar (synonymous) wording. the isaiah verse about evil is an especially good example. "light" and "good" are clearly being associated, yet look at the verbs. "make" and "form" also mean the same thing, and HAVE TO mean the same thing.
Indeed, something else is happening, the earth and everything that was MADE in Chapter 1, is now being FORMED in Chapter 2.
this is an incredibly contortionist way to read the text. how do you make something, and then form it? you can make the raw materials, and then form something out of the materials, but that's not what's happening here. in genesis 2, the material god uses to make man is the ground.
but there's an even bigger problem with your idea.
quote:
Gen 2:22 And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.
god makes woman, not "forms" woman.
Remeber, "the earth was without form; and void". CREATED covers the "void" problem, and, obviously, FORMED covers the "without form" problem.
there's another problem here. nowhere in genesis does it say that god "formed" the earth. so if "created" covers the void problem, and "formed" covers the without form problem -- where does the earth acquire form? secondly,
quote:
Gen 1:2 And the earth was without form, and void;
this is one sentance. what's further is that god does not "create" the earth in genesis 1, unless you're considering the first verse to mean that. and if so, that happens before "the void problem" and not after.
No controversey here, unless you want to take the Bible out of context, in a non-literal way.
on the contrary, it is because we're reading it in a very literal way. i think you will find that i am often the most literal person in biblical debates here. i have no porblem, however, with the contradiction because i understand the context. not just the textual, but the historical and social context as well.
Notice the first five verses are an account of what was created in the first chapter.
no, the first 3 and a half verses are the end of chapter 1. the chapters should split here:
quote:
Gen 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created.
-----
In the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens,
try reading it that way, read from genesis 1:1 to the first half of 2:4, stop, go get a snack, and come back and read the second half of genesis 2:4, to the end of the chapter 2 (or 3, or 4). it really makes a lot more sense that way.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 26 of 210 (319028)
06-08-2006 9:28 AM
Reply to: Message 24 by CK
06-08-2006 9:06 AM


opps! clearly I've been over impressed by your skills
my apologies.
no problem.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 31 of 210 (320323)
06-10-2006 11:35 PM
Reply to: Message 29 by Faith
06-10-2006 11:21 PM


The account in Genesis 1 is the chronology of Creation. The account in Genesis 2 is not about the chronology of Creation at all. The Creation story is over, summed up in fact at the beginning of chapter 2, in "these are the generations . . . The account here is about specifics of Adam's relation to the Creation, beginning with the plants.
why is the relation specific about adam coming before plants and animals, in direct contradiction to the chronology?
as i pointed out in the previous thread, animals in particular are created because adam is lonely. adam has to exist, for him to be alone -- the story does not have god saying "well, i know adam WILL be lonely after i create him." it has adam being lonely, god creating animals and bringing them to adam, adam judges them all as unsuitable, and then god creates woman.
and in regards to plants, it literally says (in the original...) adam was created before plants.


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Replies to this message:
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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 32 of 210 (320325)
06-10-2006 11:37 PM
Reply to: Message 30 by riVeRraT
06-10-2006 11:32 PM


Good Bible teachers study the original languages to arrive at their own assessment of the given translation's success at conveying the meaning.
We don't have the original language.
yes and no. while the earliest biblical hebrew texts use a different script, the language itself (iirc) is the same.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 34 of 210 (320331)
06-10-2006 11:50 PM
Reply to: Message 33 by jar
06-10-2006 11:43 PM


What is really funny is just what that says about God. He created them, male and female he created them.
Then it comes to Adam. Adam is lonely, it was not good for him to be alone. But God seems to have forgotten what he had done with all the other critters, male and female he created them. Instead he bring a gnu, and rino, and tiger and likely a gorilla or two for Adam to judge if they make a suitable companion.
the stories make very little sense next to each other, don't they?
the really weird part is that later in the same story -- cain and abel -- we get a hint or two that there are other people around, even though "eve" is the one whose name means "causes all life."
Edited by AdminPD, : Off Topic Warning
Edited by AdminPD, : Removed Warning


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 42 of 210 (321524)
06-14-2006 4:46 PM
Reply to: Message 40 by Faith
06-14-2006 4:05 AM


the contradiction, as i see it
and in regards to plants, it literally says (in the original...) adam was created before plants.
As I asked in Message 36 please point me to where you proved this.
sorry, i wasn't ignoring you to be evasive, i was ignoring you because adminpd said to drop it. but i'll post it anyways, since it might really be on topic afterall.
a posted the original hebrew (and partial translation) in message 175 of the other thread. just for further clarification, here is the complete verse, again.
quote:
— — , ‘‘: ‘, —-- . — , ‘, —-‘ , : — —, —-, , —‘ -.
eleh toldot ha-shamim v'ha-eretz: b'(ha?)-baram: b'yom asot yahueh elohim -- eretz v'shamim v'kol shich-ha-shadeh, terem yehayah b'eretz, v'kol eshab-ha-shadeh terem yetsmach: ki lo hamatir yahueh elohim al-ha-eretz, v'adam ain, l'abad et-ha-adamah
these (are) "origns" the-skies and-the-ground when-created, in-day made (pl/fm?) yahweh god -- ground and-skies and-every plant-wild, before it-was in-ground, and-every herb-wild before it-grew: because no watered yahweh god on-the-ground, and-man(kind) none, to-till (d.o.)-the-soil.
these are the origins of the skies and the ground when they were created
when the lord god made -- ground and skies,
and every wild plant before it was in the ground,
and every wild herb before it had grown,
because the lord god had not brought rain on the earth
and there was no man to till the soil.
the important point here is that there are no plants because there is no man. that much should be obvious, i hope. it's what the text says, even in english. the next few verses go on to describe man being formed:
quote:
— -
v'yatsar yahueh elohim et-ha-adam
and the lord god formed the man...
and then god making plants:
quote:
—, -, —-
v'yatsmach yahueh elohim, men-ha-adamah, kol-etz...
and the lord god made every tree [...] grow from the soil...
with the implication that because there is man (and water), god can now make those plants.
i must admit though, this is a bit of a counfounding text for me. and a lot of the point against the op (not the above claim) is a bit more subtle, and relies on the implications and connotations of the way hebrew grammar works. for instance, if i meant to say "before they were in the ground" with implication of prior existance and movement, i'd probably say — ‘ (lefnay b'eretz) or "prior to [being] in the ground." but use of is rare, and often (not always) implies that we are talking about existance. it's a word that's commonly left out, unless it's important or specifically talking the past (never the present). saying (terem yahayah b'eretz) implies that you mean "before they existed, in the ground."
but i'm even not fully sure how some of these form sentances, thought the above is my best guess. there are still some bits i can't make sense of, like why the "made" in the second half of verse four is plural and female.
i will provide an alternate viewpoint, from my copy of the chumash's heavy footnotes.
quote:
5. was yet in the earth ... had yet sprung up. This was the position after the six days. Although they were brought forth on the third day (cf. i. IIf), they were still on the surface of the earth and needed the watering of the mist to make them grow (Rashi). Nachmanides explains more simply: On the third day they were indeed created with their form and stature; but they could not be further planted or sown, and they could not grow anew until the mist ascended.
there are a number of problems with this view. the two opinions, of course, do not agree. are the plants seeds? or fully grown? the other problem is in genesis 1. for rashi, what does "brought forth" mean, if not "grew?" and for nachmanides, how to explain the presence of plants that are not yet in the ground?
further, it fails to explain why animals are apparently created twice. yes, i checked, my footnotes are mysteriously silent on the matter. and in this part of genesis, they take up half the page or more. the other half split between hebrew and english, so really, twice as much commentary as verse for any single reference. yet no reason for animals being created again.
so there's no good, consistent explanation for plants being created
there is a bit of commentary in it that pertains directly to the op, so i will post that as a separate entry,


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 44 of 210 (321526)
06-14-2006 4:48 PM
Reply to: Message 41 by LinearAq
06-14-2006 2:41 PM


Probably Gen 2:4 through 2:7 all read as the same sentence.
actually, that's totally irrelevent. nearly every sentance in the hebrew bible starts with a vav "and-" and punctuation was a relatively recent addition.
it's an odd point of trivia that the longest run-on sentance in existance is the old testament.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 45 of 210 (321537)
06-14-2006 5:27 PM


(from my chumash)
quote:
2. [...] which God in creating had made. (The literal translation is 'which God created to do' or 'make'.) The work which was still 'to do' on the seventh day was done on the sixth day (Rashi). Ibn Ezra comments: the work which God had created with the power to reproduce ('to make') itself. Nachmanides holds that bara 'created' always refers to creatio ex nihilo and asah 'made' to the shaping of existing matter, and accordingly renders: 'He rested from all His work (i.e. matter) which God had created (ex nihilo) to make' (from it the things which were made in the six days). (This accords with the view that everything was potentially created on the first day.)
again, there are a number of problems with this view. genesis 1 fails to describe such creation ex-nihilo. but that's a subject of MANY debates here. but the other problem is that while many hold (bara) to describe ex-nihilo, it's hard to find agreement on the others.
for instance, from what does god "make" the sun, the moon, and the stars? from what does god "make" man, in genesis 1? god says in one verse, let us "make" (asah) man, and in the next verse, god "creates" (bara) man. earlier in the chapter, god "creates" (bara) the great sea serpents (or "whales"). why when the fish and animals are not made ex-nihilo?
indeed, even the op agrees that and are obviously synonyms. (yatsar) is clearly the one that means "formed" and implies a physical shaping process.
but they are, however, used as synonyms:
quote:
Isa 43:7
for I have created (baratiu) him for my glory,
I have formed (yatsartiu) him;
yea, I have made (asitiu) him.
i see no reason to read it has god going through a two-step process to make the world, first creating the matter and then shaping it. genesis 2 simply uses a more personal, physical word.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 47 of 210 (327052)
06-28-2006 3:43 AM
Reply to: Message 46 by jaywill
06-28-2006 3:08 AM


Re:
It has been suggested that without the aid of divine revelation there may well not be any human word which would be reserved to mean creation ex-nihilo exclusively. Since it is not something mankind is cabable of doing, how would the concept be arrived at in human culture except with the help of God's revelation?
i'm really tired of these arguments. "creation ex nihilo" are human words. they describe creation ex nihilo, don't they? we are capable of expressing just about anything we want in human language. the argument that "we need god's help to get it" is frankly just an excuse for something not making sense as you think it should. it mean, primarily, that your reading is not based on the text. and if based on what god tells us in our own hearts -- why do we need the bible? these arguments make the bible a useless and ineffectual text, if god has to read it to us.
Bara, therefore does overlap in meaning with asah. But at least in my Hebrew dictionary "create" is not one of the words used to define ASAH.
Man as a life principle was created. Man as vessel for this life formed from the dust of the earth, was made. So the usage of bara and asah in reference to man coming into being is logical. As to his body he was formed, he was made. As to the life prinicple that is the essence of his being, he was created.
they correlate more or less directly to their english equivalents. we're talking about distinctions of implications and flavor. really, they are interchangeable and it's a matter of taste and emphasis. if you pull out a thesaurus, you'll probably find them listed as synonyms.
In the New Testament Paul surely had rabbinical training.
i doubt that.
He seems to have a Hebrew concept of God creating ex-nihilo when he expounds on the birth of Isaac according to God's promise:
well, that's the problem. that's not a hebrew concept. the first verse of genesis can acceptably be rendered:
"in the beginning of god's creating of heaven and earth, the earth was unformed..."
genesis particulary describes god forming the earth. he creates by organizing; dividing something from its opposite. the description is of creation by way of making order from chaos.
The concept of creation ex-nihilo may might reasonably have been noticed in the Hebrew in Psalm 33.
"Let all the earth fear Jehovah; Let all the inhabitants of the world stand in awe of Him.
For He spoke, and it was, He commanded, and it stood"
i don't see it. you might be able to read "was" as "existed." but that's a stretch.
That Genesis 1:26 and 1:27 prove that asah and bara are exactly synonomous has been questioned also. While make is used for man in relation to image and likeness both in verse 26, create is used only for image but not likeness in verse 27.
i'm not sure what you think that proves. both are in the image of god. one verse parallels "image" one way, the next a different way.
Some regard make in verse 26 to have the sense of "appoint". For example "Asahel" in 2 Sam. 2:18 means "God has appointed" and Asahiah (2 King 12:14) means "Jah has appointed".
Strong's Concordance has "appoint" as one of the many meanings of ASAH but not "create" as a definition.
if god "made" you king, what has he done? this is an acceptable usage in english, too.
don't use strong's like a dictionary. it's not. it catalogs the usages throughout the bible, regardless of context, conjugation, or grammar. seeing the word used one way in a particular verse does not mean that you can use it that way in another verse.
Genesis 1:26,27 could mean that God appointed man to bear His image and likeness but only creation ex-nihilo is used in reference only to man in God's image while likeness was something man was to gradually arrive at by a process of achievment, being left to be wrought out of future experience. Perhaps the eating of the tree of life was implied as bringing man into God likeness to which he was appointed.
likeness and image are the same thing. there is no idea of gradualism in the text, even if the verb is imperfect. it's still a past tense, singular action. tricks and distortions of grammar, and creative usage of a concordance don't override the basic idea of the text, and a plain and properly grammatically correct reading. and the text of genesis 1 is not very complex hebrew.
The force of the serpent's initial temptation was that man might achieve this likeness, yet in an illegal way prohibited by God.
that's a different story, and still not a valid reading. in the image or likeness of god does not mean something is god, or has all of the properties of god. it means similarity, though obviously not in all aspects. in the most literal reading, it means we look like god. and that's about it. extended readings might refer to emotions, or intelligence (but not neccessarily awareness), etc.
Edited by arachnophilia, : No reason given.


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Replies to this message:
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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 49 of 210 (327250)
06-28-2006 3:33 PM
Reply to: Message 48 by jar
06-28-2006 12:42 PM


Re: on Paul
IIRC Paul was a member of the Pharisees and so would likely have had rabbinical training I suppose.
entirely possible. but like i said, i doubt the story. there have been threads here before about paul that have suggested he wasn't even jewish at all.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 52 of 210 (327348)
06-28-2006 11:04 PM
Reply to: Message 50 by jaywill
06-28-2006 6:17 PM


Re:
i'm really tired of these arguments. "creation ex nihilo" are human words
I used the phrase because you used it first.
yes. i know. but you missed the point. clearly, the concept is able to be expressed in human language. i could probably even come up with a way to express it in hebrew.
Why shouldn't we need God help to get it?
There are many issues that are not explicitly dealt with in the Bible. It says nothing about crack cocaine, nuclear weapons, sex changes, and many other modern issues. Why should we not expect that what is written in the Bible might be illuminated upon in new ways by the Spirit of God to shine on our path through modern day life?
if god delivers us new revelations, in our own hearts, of what use is the bible? it either applies, or it does not.
Concerning Paul's training up under Gamaliel as a Pharisee -
i doubt that.
I doubt that you know a tenth of what he knew. And he was 2,000 years closer to the original writing of Genesis.
no, i doubt that paul was jewish. i'm not saying i disagree with it, i am saying that i'm skeptical of it. his words read like a fundamental reinterpretation of the text is some places (the wage of sin is death -- surely a pharisee would be more educated in levitical law) and entirely perushim in other places (subjugation of women).
I even doubt that you would have been as absolute and commited to destroying the threatening Christian church as Saul was. He understood the implications of the gospel and took the initiative to bind and jail those who were leaving Judiasm for it.
why do you think that i'm out to destroy the christian church? i'm out to understand my own faith and the traditions that influence it.
But Genesis is a record of life and life always grows and develops. Even to replenish the earth implies growth rather than a static situation.
it's a book of origins. of course there's more to it than static creation. but that has no bearing on whether we are made IN god's image, or TOWARDS god's image. the bible says "in." when we were made, not at some later point in time.
And saying the tree of life portion is not part of the text is wrong to me. Basically, not only the writers of the text but the compilers of the text, I regard as knowing more about the whole affair than modern opinions like yours would give them credit for.
no, the tree of life story comes from a different text. this is a matter of academic scholarly opinion. it has nothing to do with man being created in the image of god, the way you are reading it. you might read genesis 2 as a further explanation of how made was created in god's image, but the two are not actually related.
I think whoever was responsible for putting Genesis together as one scroll would probably laugh to hear you say that the tree of life had nothing to do with the text of which contained Genesis 1:26,27. They put the accounts together and I am don't think they would be happy with the modern slicing and dicing them apart again.
they put them together from separate parts. and you have no idea how the original scrolls were divided.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 53 of 210 (327350)
06-28-2006 11:07 PM
Reply to: Message 51 by jaywill
06-28-2006 6:56 PM


Re:
Yet some Jewish commentaries regard the state of the earth to have been the result of destruction rather than simply unformed. For example Paul Isaac Hershon in his Rabbinical Commentary on Genesis applies Genesis 1:1,2 in this way concerning the Babylonian Captivity. He applies the state of the earth as a parallel to the destruction of the Temple in the capital city of the Promised Land where God's Shekenah glory is to reside. Though the Temple is destroyed and made empty, the Spirit of God still hovers over the place of His former glory.
we've debated this before. i find no indication of a prior creation in the text. i'm sorry, but it's not there. and these games about the english "replenish" sounding like it means "plenish again" (even though "plenish" is not a word hint hint), and desolation described as un-creation don't make a world before the world.
genesis 1 starts, "in the beginning..."
the book is a book of origins, and it makes no sense to just make up stuff and insert it before "the beginning."


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1372 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 55 of 210 (327567)
06-29-2006 6:55 PM
Reply to: Message 54 by jaywill
06-29-2006 9:18 AM


Re:
The disjunctive accent [Rebhia] that the Massoretic Text inserted after the first verse to guide the reader as to the correct punctuation, has led some translators to render "but" rather than "and" as the beginning word of verse two.
it doesn't say "but." it says "and."
The notification of a pause or a break in the text before preceeding to the next verse was intended.
it flows as one sentance. in hebrew.
This understanding of a pre-Adamic destruction indicated in verse two effected the Jew's legends bassed on their Scriptures. Louis Ginsberg's work The Legends of the Jews is a continuous narrative of their legends which as much as possible, were written with the original phrases and terms. In Volume 1 which covers the period from the Creation to Jacob Ginsburg has this sample:
"Nor is this world inhabited by man the first of things earthly created by God. He made several other worlds before ours, but He destroyed them all, because He was pleased with none until He created ours."
This would agree with a Destruction / Reconstruction view of Genesis 1:1,2.
there is a long and wonderful history of jewish rabbis reading a lot into the text where there is very little support. this is ONE of those traditions. i've brought up lilith before, and she comes from the same text.
genesis 1 explains the origin of not just this planet, but this universe, in hebrew cosmology. god has to "recreate" the sun and the moon? redefine light and dark? that's a heck of a do-over. by contrast, look at where god actually DOES take a mulligan in the text, genesis 6-9. does he have to recreate the sun and moon? light and dark? day and night?
it's QUITE a stretch, and i find no justification in the text, its grammar, its semantics, or its purpose. it's just not there.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 54 by jaywill, posted 06-29-2006 9:18 AM jaywill has not replied

  
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