I think it is important to remember that, generally speaking, at the time when the OT was passed around in an oral fashion, the Hebrews thought more in concrete terms than the Hellenised authors of the NT of later times.
The concept of ”logos’ has a long tradition in the philosophical tradition of the Greeks, with Heraclitus referring to it as a sort of law that gives order to the universe as early as the 6th century BCE.
In the OT, the ”Word’ was seen as God’s creative and life giving power, as well as God’s word being able to heal (Psalm 107:20
He sent forth his word and healed them; he rescued them from the grave.)
I’d say what the author of John did was to personify the ”word’ of God, making it pre-existent with God and essentially God Himself.
I would argue that this is a different concept to the Jewish perception of the ”word’ of God, which is essentially God carrying out some deed or presenting a prophecy. The former is supported by:
Psalm 147:18
He sends his word and melts them;
he stirs up his breezes, and the waters flow.
Jeremiah 23:29
Is not my word like fire," declares the LORD, "and like a hammer that breaks a rock in pieces?
Obviously the big debating point would centre on Genesis 1, where God says ”words’ that create.
In Judaism, the ”word’ is not a person, but polytheistic Christianity
claims it is Jesus.
Brian.