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Author Topic:   An object lesson
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 61 of 131 (76308)
01-02-2004 7:16 PM
Reply to: Message 54 by :æ:
01-02-2004 12:57 PM


Now I'm hounding you
I hate to be the big party pooper here, but as I'm sure you expected, I find your conclusion to be an extremely oversimplified answer to an extremely complex concept - the existance or non-existance of moral absolutes. Perhaps this should go on another thread, but since you did open the forum up for comments and observations, these are mine.
Ultimately the argument does not hinge around what we perceive to be an absolute moral truth, that is simply because you can demonstrate differing opinions, this has no relevance as to wether or not any moral absolutes exist. While you would make the statement that absolute truth does not exist, I would alledge otherwise. Perhaps you have concluded that this is the most rational choice, given your ability to correctly percieve others to have differing views of what is right or wrong. I would maintain that this conclusion is oversimplified and a less likely answer to the question of whether or not moral absolutes exist.
My question is this, for those that claim abortion is not wrong to do, why do you make this claim? Perhaps it is because you claim that a woman should have the right to choose. Fair enough, however if this is the case, then what is your rational behind supposing someone should have a right to do this or that?
For those that would argue that it is not wrong simply because there are no absolutes and therefore nothing is wrong to do, how do you deal with a more complex question of right and wrong. Suppose the most horrific crime possible to be commited. Do you conclude that it is not wrong to do? Say murder a family by forcing the father to kill each of his kids by torturing them (again, sorry for the emotional example, I am not trying to play an emotion card, simply trying to get my point across). Is this wrong because it is illegal, or because of some other reason? Suppose we are in a lawless land, is it then ok to perform this crime? Why specificaly is it not?
Suppose rape is commited. Is this wrong? Why? Because you have violated someones space and potentialy will hurt them, thus ending their life prematurely? Why is it wrong to violate someones life in this way?
Ultimately the most rational answer is to concede that yes, there are absolute moral truths. Debating what that implies would be another discussion in and of itself.
Take care,

This message is a reply to:
 Message 54 by :æ:, posted 01-02-2004 12:57 PM :æ: has not replied

Replies to this message:
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grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 78 of 131 (76622)
01-05-2004 12:28 PM
Reply to: Message 71 by MrHambre
01-03-2004 1:04 PM


Re: That Other Discussion
My apologies for not responding sooner, however I have been away.
I have read yours and Holmes discussion and will address a couple of few points that were brought up. First however, a direct response to your original reply.
You're trying to define the term 'moral absolute' to mean 'something floating around in the sky.'
Given that it is a nonmaterial entity, I suppose your description is sufficient.
Unfortunately this is the only definition that non-believers feel comfortable with, since it makes it easier to ridicule the entire notion
I think that where the absolutists and the relativist would differ is what this absolute implies or where it comes from. The "meta" as Holmes correctly pointed out is what I am talking about here. Btw, could you demonstrate your bias to the subject matter any more thoroughly-(to ridicule the entire notion??)?
And it most certainly does depend on our opinion
Questions of existence or non-existence do not depend upon opinions. I thought this was a simple enough statement however I simply mean that for questions of existence, an entities existence does not depend upon matters of opinion. Surely you would agree that if we all agree that moral absolutes do not exist, or perhaps better stated "that they do exist but that when applied they are either absolute or relative", has no ultimate relevance as to whether or not they do in fact exist. At the risk of sounding oversimplified, supposing a simpler example my point becomes clearer. Our opinions might differ as to whether or not a car is a parked in my garage, but ultimately the cars location is not dependent upon our opinions.
The point I was making is that it is extremely oversimplified rational to conclude that moral absolutes(applicable to all) do not exist simply because we all have differing opinions of what is right and wrong. The problem is much more complex than that. I stand by this claim, and believe that within the context of the discussion it is sensible.
If we regard freedom as good in and of itself, it is a moral absolute for us
Surely you would agree that ultimately when a moral absolutist(as I am) refer to moral absolutes and their existence or non-existence, we are dealing with what you are mentioning here. Namely that morality is absolute (universal and invariant), not relative and what that implies, or as Holmes correctly pointed out, where we get this from.
Ultimately if we are talking about the applications of moral truths, then yes, opinion does obviously matter. This can be seen from the fact that when deciding what laws or rules should govern a society and what moral truths should be absolute (for that society, not for all societies), then opinion could be used as a practical method in determining this. Ultimately this is how most democratic societies deal with this problem.
However, I again will agree with Holmes in that this forum is speaking of the meta(or searching for a more comprehensive and thorough discussion) of morality as opposed to the application of morality, which is a far simpler discussion and a lot more boring IMHO.
Regards.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 71 by MrHambre, posted 01-03-2004 1:04 PM MrHambre has not replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 79 of 131 (76628)
01-05-2004 12:50 PM
Reply to: Message 73 by MrHambre
01-03-2004 4:41 PM


Re: Meta is Better
I'm not sure how to address the concept of where we 'get' these absolutes, because I'm not sure it matters.
Imagine a world in which God does exist and these moral truths do reflect His nature and character. That is, morality exists because God exists and morality is simply a reflection of Him and His goodness. Would you then still conclude that it doesn't matter?
Do you think it's possible that this is the case, that God exists and absolute morality is a direct reflection of Him?
Why are there plenty of belivers who don't hold these beliefs, if their morals are supposedly derived from the same sources?
This is again, extremely oversimplified reasoning. In the entire context of Christianity, this is entirely possible given the theology concerning mans fallen nature. If man is imperfect, all men including beleivers, then surely we would expect this to be the case, namely that man as an individual does not have a full grasp of what this perfect set of absolute moral truths consist of, therefore different opinions would exist within the body of Christ. If this were NOT the case, there would be reason to question what God has said about the fallen nature of man.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 73 by MrHambre, posted 01-03-2004 4:41 PM MrHambre has not replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 80 of 131 (76638)
01-05-2004 1:29 PM
Reply to: Message 74 by Silent H
01-04-2004 1:16 AM


I guess this is where I part paths with you...
For all of the talk of how relativism allows ANYTHING to be okay, when push comes to shove if God tells someone to do ANYTHING it then becomes okay.
It doesn't become okay, it always was ok. God is the standard by which we can even begin to judge what is ok and what is not. Do you agree that there is a standard? If so what is that standard in your opinion?
So in the end, under a deity there is no such thing as absolute right or wrong at all. Rape and murder are just fine as long as God told you personally to go do it... or you feel you are fulfilling God's plan.
This is oversimplified as well. One must examine the context in which actions were allowed to occur. Surely this is a rational concept that a moral absolute is not simply "Do not murder". Perhaps the moral absolute is more likely, "do not murder for the mere pleasure of watching someone die". And then there would perhaps be another "saying do not murder for the mere pleasure of being bored". It should be easy enough to see that the final set of moral absolute truths is infinite as God is. These simply reflect the nature, character and glory of God. While there are times when God commands acts that would appear to me immoral to us, why do we even have a sense of what is moral or immoral? Why should we assume that the morally correct course of action is to not allow the questionable act to occur instead of it being allowed to occur or even commanded to occur? In other words, if our understanding is imperfect(as I'm sure you would agree), then why should we assume at all times that we have a perfect understanding of what is the right or wrong thing for a supposed perfect God to do or not do(allow or not allow)? Furthermore, if it is clear that we are not perfect in our understanding (Plato,Descartes,etc), how can this be possible if there is not some standard of right and wrong, or correct understanding or incorrect understanding(that is, something by which we can test our understanding to and conclude it is imperfect in light of)? Absolute authority, be it truth or morality, is THE STANDARD by which or imperfect senses judge all things by. For a self proclaimed faulty entity(man) to conclude that moral truth is not absolute in light of the evidence suggesting it is, is to be choose the less likely option in my opinion. This "searching for truth" is in reality denying the very things which reality depends upon, that is objective truths very own existence. To deny objective truth is to declare an objective truth, that is to deny objective truth is in essence declaring an absolute truth. Since it is impossible for absolute truth to not exist(for in denying its existence, one is declaring an absolute) why should a rational person, after examining all evidence, conclude that ALL is relative? The statement that everything is relative is in itself another form of absolute. To make the statement that there is one thing that is not relative, is to concede that absolute truth exists. So in order for a relativist to sustain a rational discussion, they must ultimately compromise their own position. Since, while assuming to be searching for truth, or to have understood truth(that all is relative), they are ultimately conceding that truth exists and that they have found it(again, that all is relative).
Concerning moral relativism, while this could quickly become a discussion on Divine Command Theory, my position is that these moral absolutes are a direct reflection of Gods glory and grace. Furthermore, absolute truth exists because it is impossible for it to not exist.
Take care

This message is a reply to:
 Message 74 by Silent H, posted 01-04-2004 1:16 AM Silent H has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 81 by :æ:, posted 01-05-2004 1:55 PM grace2u has replied
 Message 86 by Silent H, posted 01-05-2004 6:02 PM grace2u has replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 82 of 131 (76650)
01-05-2004 2:28 PM
Reply to: Message 81 by :æ:
01-05-2004 1:55 PM


grace2u writes:
The statement absolute truths do not exist is making a claim of absolute truth.
:ae: writes:
No, it's not. It is a descriptive observation of reality.
I apoogize if I sound disingenious, however I do not consider your declaration that it is a descriptive observation of reality to be a sufficient rebuttal. For one, you provide no examples and no explanation as to what you are suggesting. I could simply reply "no it is not" and we would obviously get nowhere.
You do demonstrate your ability to get trapped and provide further evidence for my claim however, namely that even you assume absolute truth(while you continue to deny its existance, again "professing to be wise..."). The statement that it is a descriptive observation of reality I would have to ask, what do you suppose this reality to be? Is there such a thing as something that is not real? Absolute truth reigns sovereignly over that which you understand this reality to be, and any concept of what we think this reality is, is compared to what our view of absolute truth is, perhaps instead of denying it's existance, you could concede it exists and we could discuss what this implies or does not imply. At any rate, you agree that reality exists, what do you suggest this reality is?
Finaly, you have yet to explain to me, how it is possible that absolute truth may NOT exist?
I want to grant you the last word on this-I will try. I do not intend to continue this debate on this forum. The question and discussion, while in existence on other threads, probably does deserve it's own. If I had time, I would compose a position on this, and add a new thread. If you would like to, I will do my best to participate.
Thanks and regards.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 81 by :æ:, posted 01-05-2004 1:55 PM :æ: has replied

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grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 87 of 131 (76736)
01-05-2004 9:25 PM
Reply to: Message 86 by Silent H
01-05-2004 6:02 PM


Part paths? Don't you get it? You just sang my praises!
Alas, have no fear, I never did mean to suggest that YOU were on my path, rather I was following yours concerning the repsonses to MrHambre.
But that is from a universal perspective. To humans it will appear that something was a moral absolute and then we learn it has always been okay... and thus it becomes understood as okay from then on
Ok, this is fine.
Once you have a set of moral truths that encompass infinity, you no longer have a set.
What?? Are you suggesting that a set MUST not have infinity contained within it as one of its elements? Any mathematician will inform you that this is simply a false statement. Have I misunderstood you? If so, please clarify. Or perhaps you are referring to a definition that supposes a set to be complete. If so, this is semantics.
Thus absolutism (when attached to a deity) becomes worse in practice (and comprehension) then relativism
If this is your rational behind embracing relativisim than I can only fault it as being simply illogical. It does not logicaly follow that because I supposed an infinite number of elements exists within the supposed set, which you alledge is not allowed(while mathematics would reject your claim), that because of this absolutism is worse in practice or in comprehension, and therefore relativism is more likely. While something might be harder to comprehend, this does not prove that the simpler construct is more valid or more likely. I simply do not follow your logic here. Perhaps I have again misunderstood you. If so please clarify.
Again, thank you. This is exactly what absolutism starts reducing to and so freeing everyone from moral control of any kind.
Allow me to be clear, I am not trying to propogate some absolutist moral agenda here. I concede that there are real problems that can be addressed when dealing with the application of these moral truths. The question this begins to examine is whether or not there is some absolute moral entity responsible for deciding what a moral absolute is or isnt. Your comments is again either being misunderstood by me, or is a very strange conclusion.
Are you suggesting that end result of absolutism is that we still know nothing and therefore are free to commit any moral act? Does it not follow that if an absolute moral truth exists, then there is something which governs what this truth is? The implications behind absolutism is not that we can therefore finaly create a set of laws within the United States that will control peoples lives and reflect heaven. Rather it is evidence that God does in fact exist and that He is the standard of moral absolute truth. One can then begin to deal with this likely reality as they see fit. Either by meeting this standard (impossible) or by asking this standard be met by that which is perfect(Christ).
Who is to say that lady that killed her kids to protect them from Satan was wrong? Maybe she WAS following the will of God? Who is to say Jones wasn't right for spiking the KoolAid with poison? Maybe it was just God's will to bring them all home?
Now to address your situational ethics(which is not ultimately what this thread is about as you correctly pointed out in previous posts),
God has asked us to submit to societies authority, even corrupt Rome at the time. If society has a law that says it is illegal to kill for no reason(which I'm sure all do), then that is what we should embrace as believers and non-believers. If I am chosen to make laws, then my duty as a beleiver should be to help make laws that I believe to be consistent with Gods will and His nature, this realized through walking with the spirit, reading His word and through prayer. Will I get it wrong? Sometimes I will. This is to be expected since I am but a fallen vessel, who can only BEGIN to know Gods perfect and just ways.
Chaos is the true result of moral absolutism hitched to a deity, because there is absolutely nowhere to point the moral finger as the source, or the absolute.
At least with relativism, people can point out that laws of action men have derived are not having their intended result.
I am not saying (nor would I) that because of absolutism derived from a God, we can finaly have a perfect society here in the U.S. that will reflect Gods true nature and ultimate will. While I agree some extreme fundamentalists might hold this position, I certainly would not. I am much more concerned with what the existance of an absolute moral truth implies (or does not imply).
What evidence are you speaking about? Have you taken into account the moral truths of all other religions as well? Whose has the most evidence on its side?
You do have a sense of right and wrong as do I. This is evidence that there exists something called morality. The absolute nature of morality follows because it is reasonable to assume that there is a standard by which we measure our moral judgements by. While this is impossible to truly quantify, a reasonable person can certainly conclude that one exists. Christian theology, as I'm sure you know, teaches that God placed within all of us a basic understanding of His invisible qualities so that we would know He exists. I understand this to mean His qualities, nature or character are seen by man in that we have concepts of justice, good, bad, evil, right, wrong, morality, and ultimately truth. Even those who deny God exists have such things, while their worldview can not give a rational account for their existance. For example, you have stated that it was wrong for God to ask Abraham to kill his son. Where do you think this sense of what is right or wrong comes from? Do you not agree that if God placed it in you, and if you were faulty in nature compared to God, that you would have a misunderstanding of what right or wrong truly is and could possibly misinterpret certain situations? You conclude that it is wrong for God to command this, what evidence do you have? Why should one suppose that it is wrong for God to ask someone to do this? Do you not agree that it is possible that this is a good act in that it demonstrated for most of humanity that we can trust God to provide the sacrifice(Christ)? Or that He is faithfull?
The God of the Bible states quite clearly that he is Jealous and Vengeful. If that is not admitting an imperfect state I am incapable of thinking any states more imperfect that he could ascribe to himself
Gods jealousy is not like mans jealosy in that man is tainted by wickedness. Gods vengefullness in a similar way. Not a man made vengence that is irrational and unjust, littered with emotion, rather it is a holy and perfect vengence based soley on truth. It is pure and good because God is pure and good and is the standard by which we measure such things by. There are much more complicated and thought provoking explanations, in particular J. Edwards has some incredible insight into these concepts. I will attempt to explain his theology concerning this from memory. Any corrections are welcome. Ultimately since God is perfect, we would expect God to behave in a perfect manner. Furthermore, it should follow that God would appreciate different concepts to the degree of perfection that these entities exhibit perfection. So if something is ok, it should be esteemed to the level of ok. If something is the greatest possible thing imaginable, then a perfect entity should love this concept or entity to a degree as large as possible. This ultimately explains why God appears to be so "caught up in Himself"(jealous and vengeful). We should fully expect Him to value that which is greatest to be valued to a degree that it is the greatest. Since God is perfect, the degree He is perfect is infinite. Therefore, God should value Himself to an infinite degree.
Why do you perceive jealousy and vengence to be imperfect states for an alleged God to maintain? They are imperfect states for US since they suggest we have ultimate authority or that we are the ultimate in perfection and can therefore be jealous over a lack of attention or for some other reason. We are also tainted by falsehood so any act of vengence we carry could potentialy be done in error.
How is it inconsistent to state that the objective truth of the world is that either there is no particular "set" of moral values which exist, or man is not in a position to know them?
I understand your confusion on this. I brought up concepts of absolute truth, simply to demonstrate that absolute truths exist, and therefore it is possible for absolute truths of a moral type to exist.
Given your earlier statements regarding our inability to know whether God is changing his mind or not... and so anything goes... what moral absolutes are you talking about?
Perhaps you have misunderstood me on this. While it is possible for God to change His mind, it is not possible for moral absolutes to change. Any proposed moral absolute that would change is simply not a moral absolute. A property of moral absolutes are that they are invariant.
And if an absolute truth must logically exist, which set must logically exist? Xianity's? There are many others to choose from and they can argue the same case you just did. Moreover Xians from different denominations will hand me different sets. Which set shows God's glory and why?
I parialy agree with this. It is true that many religious systems could use this argument. Some could not. In fact, this ultimately is an argument for the existance of an absolutely moral God as opposed to strictly an argument for Christianity. If one were to concede that God must exist because of the high probability of an absolute moral truth existing, then there would be an entirely different argument which could lead a person to conclude that Christianity is true. Christianity is consistent with this argument and can deal adequately with these concepts. In fact, Christianity does make the claim that these concepts of morality have been placed within man, reflecting Gods invisible attributes. Concerning a denomination handing you the defnition of this set, I would say they are all wrong. I think now that this is probably just a simple misunderstanding of my position on your part. Only God fully knows what this set is. We simply see sin-tainted glimpses of it.
Take care and regards.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 86 by Silent H, posted 01-05-2004 6:02 PM Silent H has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 89 by Silent H, posted 01-06-2004 1:54 AM grace2u has replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 94 of 131 (76982)
01-07-2004 12:34 PM
Reply to: Message 93 by Stephen ben Yeshua
01-06-2004 10:30 PM


Re: Begging the question?
Please remember that I am convinced that all Christian sects are the work of the devil, and that all their members are sons of Satan. Tares, goats, chaff!
Can you please explain what you mean by this?
"Christe eleison"

This message is a reply to:
 Message 93 by Stephen ben Yeshua, posted 01-06-2004 10:30 PM Stephen ben Yeshua has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 97 by Stephen ben Yeshua, posted 01-07-2004 4:13 PM grace2u has replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 98 of 131 (77027)
01-07-2004 4:48 PM
Reply to: Message 89 by Silent H
01-06-2004 1:54 AM


We are not discussing mathematics, especially theoretical mathematics which can allow for a concept like infinity to be grouped in a set of abstract numbers.
Ok. This is fair enough. A misunderstanding.
We are discussing morality. Inherent to the concept of moral laws are "allowed actions", and "proscribed actions"... moral laws separate one group from the other. By necessity, infinity cannot be a part of either set of actions or no laws exist. Or if there is moral law the only law is that set out in the Satanic Bible "Do what thou will, shall be the whole of the law."
I think this certainly depends upon what exactly you suppose these sets are and what infinity means in the context of these defined sets. My position is simply that these laws exist, but that their scope is infinite. Just as it is possible for a sequence of numbers to continue onward towards infinity, I would suggest it is possible for a set of moral absolutes to continue on towards infinity. Infinity is not a "*" or "?" (wildcard). It is a way of expressing something that has no bounds. For example. If we assign an absolute moral truth a number, no killing for pleasure=1, no rape for pleasure=2, no rape out of bordem=3, etc, then the set of absolute moral truths could resemble {1,2,3,..., infinity}. As God is infinite, so are these moral absolutes. They reflect His nature(which is infinite in scope and perfection). While I perceive them to be infinite, I ultimately have little passion for this in particular. In fact, for the sake of discussion, I could grant you this point and we could continue. Perhaps I could say, that the set of absolute moral truths exist and are only fully known by God and therefore they could go on for infinity. The point behind this is not whether or not ethics are infinite or not, rather what A SINGLE absolute ethic would suggest about the universe in which we live.
I do see however in your later responses that I need to be more exhaustive in demonstrating that a single absolute moral truth more than likely exists.
then you certainly cannot say that everything may end up being allowed according to the infinite being that is God
By infinite, I simply mean the moral laws could continue on forever, not that everything is possible.
On a side note, I do find it interesting that a relativist would make claims on what can or can not be done. Is this allowed within your philosophical system? If so, please explain the justification. Are you not assuming some universal standard of truth exists and that by me suggesting these things it is violating that truth?
Relativism lets everyone point directly at the ethicist and ask "what the hell are YOU talking about?"
I am pretty confident I understand where you are coming from here. I think that it is slightly clouded however and I do not agree with your conclusion. For one, within absolutism, one does have ultimate authority to make claims of right and wrong because they acknowledge that these things exist and that there is a standard that can be worked towards. Within relativism, it does not follow that anyone should make any statements of right and wrong because who is to say such a thing exists? If you say that the only absolute moral truth is To each his own then isn’t this an absolute moral truth in itself? In fact, within relativism wouldn't it be safe to conclude that everyone should do as they wish? Even harm others at times? While I understand that relativism is more complicated than this(and would not agree with such actions), I am simply looking at the final conclusion that relativism offers, namely no judgement claims can be made about anything with any authority. Furthermore, for the more complex issues such as murder out of pleasure, why is it that this is wrong (as far as we can tell) in every civilized culture? If a culture does agree it is ok, do you not agree that it still is wrong? If you do, then what is the justification within the proper confines of relativism? I would maintain that in order to be consistent with relativism, one must concede that if a society kills out of pleasure, than it is ok for that society. In doing this, I simply think that the relativist is making an irrational choice, simply to maintain there relativistic position. Why deny self evident realities in order to fit the world into your system of belief? It simply is irrational in my opinion. Is it not far more likely that there is some absolute standard and that this culture is violating it? Christian theism can give an account for absolute morality., very few others( including relativism), can do the same. The relativist is left with having to deny that these actions are wrong for that society. How does this compare to the alledged contradictions you find within Christianity? An Omni,omni,omin, God who commands violent acts when a greater good comes out of said acts Vs. a society being correct if the consensus agrees to throw the virgin into the volcano or whatever. How is the later example more rational than the former?
I have already conceded that there are problems still within absolutism that require human created(and therefore error prone) solutions. In other words, since the truth (in its fullness ) is ultimately unknowable to man, he still needs to make rational decisions in determining laws for societies. Within absolutism, one could still point the finger to the imperfect human and say "what were you thinking?". That person would then have to give a rational account for that which was claimed. The claim "God told me to do it" would not be rational in my opinion. This can be seen because ultimately we are commanded in scripture to submit to the authority that God has allowed to be placed over us- even a corrupt Roman empire as it was in context.
I will add though, that the fact that an no absolute ethic has ever worked for everyone (leading at best to oppression), tends to suggest that perhaps none exists
OK, I grant this as evidence.
It does still seem as though we are working towards seperate points. I am not an ethicist and am not interested in the application of ethics. As you know, my interest is in the meta. The philosophy of ethics and what these imply about our universe. Within this context, I understand your point and this is a logical conclusion one could make. However, in the broader picture, it is not conclusive by any means. You were careful(I commend) and did note that you do not view it as conclusive only that it suggests that none exist. I agree with your claim that this is evidence against the idea. However, I would not assign it a very large rank since there are many things that we simply have not discovered yet. And perhaps there are ethics in existence that do reflect portions of absolute truth. In fact perhaps some exist now and we simply do not know if it absolute or not. One example would be murder -for errant or NO reason. Is this not an absolute moral law in your opinion? Has this law worked? Certainly the world is better off because of this law do you not agree? Looking at a supposed society where this was ok - say the extermination of Jews in Nazi Germany. This was allowed by the ultimate authority in that country do you think then that this is an ok thing to do EVER? This is the ultimate philosophical problem for relativism and to this problem I would assign a large number in deciding whether an absolute moral law exists, and therefore implying that an absolute moral authority exists.
So, while you have some evidence against the idea, surely you would concede I have evidence for the prospect of absolute moral truth. IMHO, the evidence for absolute moral truth, far outweighs the evidence against.
Again the focus was supposed to be on creation of an ethic, not just on how to apply it. I am sorry that my wording was not clear on this point
You have a good point here. While perhaps I have jumped to soon to what the implications of absolute moral truth implies. I grant you have some evidence to suggest it does not, however I still maintain that the evidence for absolute moral truth far outweighs that against. Namely, impossibility(or at least unlikelihood) of the contrary.
I posit to you that if an absolute ethic cannot be constructed, or must be constructed on an ad hoc basis do to the nature of the deity, this renders moot any question of whether an absolute moral authority exists and what its laws are.
I disagree with your conclusion. The simple fact that it is difficult to construct the absolute ethic, does not imply that one does not exist. If there were no other evidence to suggest this, then I would agree. However there are other data points that suggest absolute moral truth exists.
What other evidence do you have that suggests NO absolute moral law exists (besides mans inability to agree on what one might be)? There are many things that we readily agree exist, even though man can not fully agree on the meta of said entity. For example Logic.
grace2u writes:
Does it not follow that if an absolute moral truth exists, then there is something which governs what this truth is?... Rather it is evidence that God does in fact exist and that He is the standard of moral absolute truth
Holmes writes:
No. You cannot make this argument as it is circular. A metaethic comes before an ethic and so the absolute authority must exist before the ethic
I have made an a posteriori conclusion that absolute moral truth exist. Namely from the impossibility of the contrary and from the experiences of life, a more detailed example will follow. Since this is justified in a conversational manner from evidence provided, it should follow a priori that an absolute standard exists and is that which we compare the absolute truth to. The implications of an evidenced absolute moral truth are self evident(a standard exists by which to judge this truth by- it is essentially tautologous), the existence of the absolute truth is evidenced from experience. Now, if this is true then I do maintain that this is evidence that an absolutely moral God exists and He is that standard which we see. By no means is this an exhaustive proof, however it is reasonable and is at least strong evidence for the claims Christianity makes.
You cannot work backward and say there is an absolute ethic, which proves that there is a God, when what you are trying to prove in the first place is that there is an absolute ethic set by God.
Ok, this is fine if I simply presupposed an absolute ethic. Perhaps in this conversation this is how it appears. Lets examine the evidence suggesting there are absolute moral truths and then we can continue.
grace2u writes:
You do have a sense of right and wrong as do I. This is evidence that there exists something called morality. The absolute nature of morality follows because it is reasonable to assume that there is a standard by which we measure our moral judgments by.
Holmes writes:
You make too large a leap in this paragraph. While this does show there is something called morality, the fact that all of us differ on what right and wrong is argues that it is relative and NOT absolute
Now I think we are at step one and probably where this discussion should dwell for a while. I also would agree that this is a large step, although I would also say that this entire conversation has been largely conversational and as such many statements made are large leaps and somewhat random at times.
Consider the possibility of an absolute moral truth. It is wrong to inflict pain on another person against their own will for no other reason than to watch them scream in pain.
One could argue a priori , that it is self evidently wrong and leave it at that.
OR..
One could lend experiential evidence suggesting one exists such as
I know that my life is enjoyable. I know that pain is uncomfortable. While there may be times in which I will go through pain in order that a greater good might come of it, simply allowing someone to be entertained is not desirable. If there was a time I could perceive, then the torture would NOT be against my will, but be in accordance with my will. I can not perceive a situation in which others would have differing opinions regardless of time and cultural differences. It is not a rational concept to me or to any other rational person that this would be allowed. Perhaps a situation could be produced, however I could then make my proposed absolute ethic slightly different and then it would be sufficient. This could continue until a completely ridiculous counter claim could simply be dismissed as highly unlikely or simply irrational, meanwhile the absolute moral truth claim, would most likely still be rational. That is compare:
It is wrong to infilict pain on another person .
What if its in accordance with their will?
OK,
It is wrong to inflict pain on another person even if its against their will.
What if its saving millions.
OK,
It is wrong to inflict pain on another person even if its against their will and the only reason is for their pleasure.
OK, you fill in the blank now.
Eventually the scenario: It is wrong to inflict pain on another person even if its against their will and the only reason is for their pleasure.
Makese sense, but
Someone trying to inflict pain against their will or they will kill millions or even two other people is an irrational concept. The fact that it is irrational to us, provides further evidence that there is some standard absolute behavior by which we can both judge this action by. Surely this standard is not us, we could be wrong as Hitler was.
While this is not formal in any way, certainly one could produce a formal and academic argument along these lines. It is simply more rational to concede that an absolute moral truth exists. And if one does exist, what does this imply?
A singular absolute moral code, would not tend to generate so many moral positions if we are all striving to match that one.
Suppose however that man is imperfect and has a nature to resist these codes. Would we then expect man to reach different conclusions on what these truths are? I would say your conclusion is dependent upon man being perfect as the laws are supposedly perfect.
There is no good in the world, once humans abandon peace and health in the name of following extremist demands of a deity
There could be problems with this yes, however examine the teachings of Christ and do you still come to the same conclusion? In our limited understanding, yes we can see times when we question what God has done or the decision He has made. But everyone of these cases, we can see a greater good occurring can we not? If you look at these actions within the context of the God really existing and His teachings being true, then the few actions which at times are hard to understand become quite understandable. For every one of these actions are there not 100 other perceivable good actions or lessons being revealed? If we are truly fallen would we not perceive some of His actions to be bad? Who are we to judge what an all knowing all good God might or might not do, especially when we are limited in our understanding. This is more evidence that He is who He says He is and that we are who He says we are(limited and fallen disobedient vessels).
Zeus's jealousy is not like mans jealosy in that man is tainted by wickedness. Zeus's vengefullness in a similar way. Not a man made vengence that is irrational and unjust, littered with emotion, rather it is a holy and perfect vengence based soley on truth. It is pure and good because Zeus is pure and good and is the standard by which we measure such things by
Tell me how to differentiate between all of these statements without being completely abritrary or self-serving?
Within the context of Christianity, these problems of vengeance and a jealous God do make sense. Within the context of other religions perhaps they do not. They are not contradictory for Christianity which is what you originally intended to demonstrate. For Zeus or any other diety, given this deities nature (limited and not omni,omni,omni), maybe it is a contradiction. They would have to deal with this alleged problem using their own theology.
I am running out of time and will simply have to leave my statements as they are. If I have misunderstood you at any time, as I have in the past, please clarify. Furthermore, if there are other specific points you wanted addressed, please ask and point me to the question.
Thanks for the thought provoking comments and take care,
Grace2u

This message is a reply to:
 Message 89 by Silent H, posted 01-06-2004 1:54 AM Silent H has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 99 by :æ:, posted 01-07-2004 5:27 PM grace2u has replied
 Message 100 by :æ:, posted 01-07-2004 5:44 PM grace2u has not replied
 Message 104 by Silent H, posted 01-07-2004 11:56 PM grace2u has not replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 101 of 131 (77053)
01-07-2004 6:44 PM
Reply to: Message 99 by :æ:
01-07-2004 5:27 PM


It is not normaly necessary to reply to a nitpick however...
Not really. There are such things as bounded infinities, ex: a line segment. A line segment is a set of infinitely many points yet it forms a definite interval with a beginning and an ending.
I disagree. Surely you've heard of (or done) a line integral? How do you suppose a line integral can return a finite value for a line segment if there are infinite infentesimal dx's? Wouldn't all the dx's simply add up to infinity if this were true? Btw, aren't bounded infinities mere specualtion on the part of philosophers who know little of applied mathematics(reality)? How have I misunderstood you?
OR..
If you are speaking of the physical world, a line drawn out still eventually has a finite number of particles making up this line.
Sorry :ae:, either you've stepped out of your arena of knowledge on this or I have grossly misunderstood you. If so, my apologies.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 99 by :æ:, posted 01-07-2004 5:27 PM :æ: has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 102 by :æ:, posted 01-07-2004 7:34 PM grace2u has replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 103 of 131 (77074)
01-07-2004 9:17 PM
Reply to: Message 102 by :æ:
01-07-2004 7:34 PM


At any rate, since you mention a provable fact, what do you mean by this, in context with your post-modernalist view of the world?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 102 by :æ:, posted 01-07-2004 7:34 PM :æ: has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 106 by :æ:, posted 01-08-2004 12:02 PM grace2u has not replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 105 of 131 (77139)
01-08-2004 11:00 AM
Reply to: Message 97 by Stephen ben Yeshua
01-07-2004 4:13 PM


Re: Begging the question?
Stephen,
While we may disagree on some theological issues or interpretations, I am united with you in love.
Take care and God bless,

This message is a reply to:
 Message 97 by Stephen ben Yeshua, posted 01-07-2004 4:13 PM Stephen ben Yeshua has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 107 by Silent H, posted 01-08-2004 3:41 PM grace2u has replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 108 of 131 (77198)
01-08-2004 6:11 PM
Reply to: Message 107 by Silent H
01-08-2004 3:41 PM


I think that what you are witnessing is simply an example of how some of this extremely complex information given through divine inspiration(the old and new testament) is dealt with in a realistic world in which differences of opinion exist amongst fallen and finite vessels. Now I may disagree with Stephen on some things and he might with me, however we are united in love by the grace of God . We both have had experiences that make us members of a fellowship which is far greater than any church door or religious sect. My Reformed Calvinistic theology challenges me and speaks to me in a way that I’m sure Stephen would largely disagree with. Just the same, his communion with the almighty is in a way that perhaps is different than mine. We might even draw different conclusions concerning the nature of church fellowship, doctrines of inerrancy, evolution vs. creation, divine command theory, abortion, theology in general, escetology, gifts of the spirit or whatever. I trust however that I will meet Stephen in heaven given his proclamations of having received grace and his obvious love/appreciation for God certainly demonstrating he has.
We are united by something far greater than any disagreement we might have in the nature of church worship or any other man-made concept.
I am not here to argue theology with other believers. I am not here to try and show how smart I am. I am simply on this forum because I have a love for Jesus and for those on this forum such that I want them to know the grace and love of God that I and millions of other people understand to exist.
I understand that many on this forum have scientific minds and can not simply accept many of the concepts Christianity teaches, even though they would probably like to. I am simply trying to demonstrate that a rational, scientific minded person, can embrace the teachings of Christ, and receive His mercy without murdering/ignoring their minds. That everything does not require a scientific process or proof to be valid or true. That many things in fact exist even though they can not be proved. That the contrary position is ultimately irrational in that it denies the existence of some of the more fundamental truths we understand about the world in which we live, even though it at times assumes they exist and are absolute. Truths such as absolute truth, logic, reason, anger, jealousy, right wrong, love, the order of mathematics, order, justice, etc.
And in the end isn't the actual theology behind Xianity everything there is
Absolutely not. Jesus is that which ties it together, not some systematicly derived theology. While I appreciate theology and beleive it has a purpose in the body of Christ, it is not the end all.
I will reply to your previous response as soon as time allows me to.
Take care and regards,

This message is a reply to:
 Message 107 by Silent H, posted 01-08-2004 3:41 PM Silent H has not replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 111 of 131 (77344)
01-09-2004 12:39 PM
Reply to: Message 110 by Silent H
01-08-2004 10:14 PM


Well grace seems to feel you are a Xian, and regardless of title you want, that would seem to be a good term to cover you. .... and to Grace: how you can consider Steve a brother in love
The conclusion I have drawn concerning this is that when Stephen references "Jehovah" he is referencing the same Jehovah I know and love. References to Yeshua (Hebrew for Jesus) lend further evidence to my beleif that he has received Grace through Jesus perfect sacrifice. This is also evidenced by his proclomations of grace and appreciation of it. Now, Stephen would potentialy disassociate himself from that which I am saying, this is fine, as far as I can tell now, I still wouldn't change my mind about him. I understand that I am a fallen vessel and am in need of grace. It seems as if Stephen has a similar understanding and his statements concerning atonement have lended further evidence towards my belief that him and I are speaking of the same God and that we are in the same fellowship.
Just because he won't call himself a Christian doesn't mean that I can not love him as a brother or that we are not both in the perfect entity know as the body of Christ or the body of believers. Given this, any disagreements within the fellowship are certainly not to be discussed in some open forum-like here. God has in fact laid out methods we are to use in order to deal with these matters.
I ultimately do not know the true spiritual position of Stephen nor anyone else on this forum. It is not for me to know, it is for God. I am united with Stephen in love because I think we both are ultimately speaking of the same things. While Stephen and I would potentially disagree on every subject possible to discuss within the context of scriptures teachings or the "church today", it does seem that we are united in our beliefs of absolutism, which is what this thread is speaking about.
I apologize if this sounds somewhat arbitrary or disfunctional. Please know that my debate is with those who deny that God exist or deny that Jesus atonement is the perfect and neccesary method of salvation. My debate is NOT with those who see the Christian church today as having deep problems and feeling that they must completely disassociate themselves with it.
If this is absolutism, I'll stick with my own morality
It seems to me that this is a strange way of concluding that your own morality is much better off. Couldn't this brotherly acceptance of Stephen(and his apparent acceptance of me) actually be looked at as a type of relativism within the body of believers so as not to cause division or confuse matters more than they already are, since we understand that no one is perfect, only Jesus? What am I missing here?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 110 by Silent H, posted 01-08-2004 10:14 PM Silent H has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 114 by Silent H, posted 01-10-2004 9:27 PM grace2u has not replied

  
grace2u
Inactive Member


Message 123 of 131 (78069)
01-12-2004 4:43 PM
Reply to: Message 119 by Silent H
01-11-2004 3:33 PM


I understand what you are saying. I think that the question you pose is extremely complex and probably ultimately unknowable to us. If you are asking if I would consider this person to be a Christian, it is certainly debatable, probably no however. I suppose most Christians(95%) would say no as well. They would probably rationalize that because his fruit is obviously not of Christ, he is not of Christ. I would agree that anyone who thinks that Hitler was correct, is seriously lacking in their understanding of what Christ taught, and is lending more evidence to suggest a still rebellious heart, then a converted child of grace. To the point, where I would probably question their own professed faith and doubt the reality of their conversion. Given this, I could make educated assessments and take actions accordingly(confront them in their obvious false understanding of scripture), however I certainly can’t say if their conversion is real or not. The same is for Stephen and for my wife even. I simply do not know. All we see is the external, only God knows the heart and it’s true position towards Himself. We see the evidenced "fruit" of a converted heart but only God knows the truth. The fruit I see from the Nazi suggests rebellion.
I think there is a large difference between what I understand Stephen to be saying and what this example demonstrates. It is a valid question however.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 119 by Silent H, posted 01-11-2004 3:33 PM Silent H has not replied

  
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