Brad McFall
Member (Idle past 5062 days) Posts: 3428 From: Ithaca,NY, USA Joined: 12-20-2001
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Re: Free Will?
A knowable fact could be "psychologistically" possible even if we did not know how or why the incident points subseted are commersurable or congruent or NOT following a Greek parrallel. Logicism and psychologism do not always lead to the same lead back salamder's Zigzag red gene nor is Kripke's philosophy the only remedy to Nozick's F in class. read and red sound like lead and led. HOW else could I get committed for mental reasons when I was asking if there was only something PHYSCIALLY wrong and yet the state of Florida tried to use the LOGIC of my TWO REASONS to claim if only a placebo some psychological effect? Why=/=How! The teleogical ideal was missing. This is not "idealism" however the logic likes the ear of the other.
This message is a reply to: | | Message 55 by Parasomnium, posted 10-10-2003 5:42 AM | | Parasomnium has not replied |
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Brad McFall
Member (Idle past 5062 days) Posts: 3428 From: Ithaca,NY, USA Joined: 12-20-2001
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Message 58 of 58 (60792)
10-13-2003 9:09 PM
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Reply to: Message 7 by compmage 01-28-2003 12:30 AM
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its not necessarily "wrong". It may be "right" for Gould to think he is correct about two magesteria and to agree with your judgement on the basis of a certain relative world probalism but if one KNOWS (not God necessarily) that there is position or point of veiw which IS NOT a CERTAIN- (I mean one that we can have no doubt has at least existed historically) DUALSIM of natural result of Cartesianism on Newtonianism then stochasticsm can still be redolent and the recedent trajectory not necessarily only read as out of Laplacian infinite intellect. You seem to have judged beauty or teleology and not a set of divergence, convergence, homology, analogy and homoplasy
This message is a reply to: | | Message 7 by compmage, posted 01-28-2003 12:30 AM | | compmage has not replied |
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