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Member (Idle past 96 days) Posts: 10333 From: London England Joined: |
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Author | Topic: Ushering In An Age of Reason....Or Not.....? | |||||||||||||||||||||||
RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi Straggles,
The problem with your whole "pseudoskepticism" thing is that by the terms of your own argument science itself is pseudoskeptical ... Rather than get your undies in a knot, why don't you give us your answers to the questions posed below: From this we can ask the following questions (note edited from previous questions in Message 87, taking into account some input from Panda to modify the original post slightly):
Is it good to employ logical fallacies?
Is it good to employ pseudoskeptic arguments?
Is it good to employ pseudoscience?
First off, please note that I started by including everyone: "Curiously, when anyone, atheists included, employs logical fallacies, pseudoskeptic arguments and pseudoscience, they are not contributing to a trend to increase rationality, reason and evidence based inquiry." Do you agree that this applies to everyone (or at least anyone interested in promoting a new age of reason)? This is not intended as an attack on you per se or anyone else, it is a definition of part of the problem.
The problem with your whole "pseudoskepticism" thing is that by the terms of your own argument science itself is pseudoskeptical and logically invalid. Really? Or is that just your understanding of it. Let's look at the definition of pseudoskeptic again: http://www.wordiq.com/definition/Pseudoskepticism
quote: Now lets take the elements listed for pseudoskepticism one by one:
Is it good to employ closedmindedness?
Is it good to employ deception?
Is it good to employ scorn, sneering, or ridicule in place of reasoned debate?
Is it good to employ logical fallacies, rhetoric, or dishonest strategies of persuasion which are intended more sway an audience rather than to expose truth?
Can you answer those questions? What about these ones:
If yes can you provide examples?
... and logically invalid. Why is it logically invalid to start with an a priori assumption? Enjoy. Edited by RAZD, : log Edited by RAZD, : science questionsby our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi again GDR
... but I believe that the moral advances have come because of either a moral prime mover or greater socialization and I subjectively believe the former. Or the moral prime mover is causing the greater socialization as a gradual process.
Modulous writes: People still might believe some religious things, but they are limited to the moral sidelines, not centre stage.There might be a prime moral mover. But we don't need to consult it in order to moral decisions, and indeed we generally don't. For the most part, with religion sidelined, we'll still have the same moral instincts, its just that the bad moral ideas that religion defends (sometimes with lethal zeal) will no longer be justifiable and will likewise get sidelined. I think that over time religion is drawing us closer to the world that we both yearn for. Religions have had a very chequered history, but I truly believe that bit by bit they are moving in the right direction ... So the religions are evolving - as well as the "greater socialization" - towards a more uniform and egalitarian moral code that respects all people. Sometimes this is led by religions (abolition?) and sometimes by secular trends (equal pay for work of equal value?)
Modulous writes: I contend we would be in a much better position to deal with these problematic facts if we study society and morals as evolved and imperfect traits rather than postulating some magic prime moral mover. But that contention is circular. It is dependent on there not being a prime moral mover. If such an entity exists then it seems evident to me that the other approach would be preferable. Personally I don't see it as an either\or proposition. There are some values that may come from either source - we can't necessarily tell - and an open-minded skeptical approach would not rule out one vs the other a priori.
Modulous writes: Right, so if religion is sidelined, genital mutilation for control cannot be justified anymore. Those that would do that will find some other excuse or not bothering justifying it at all. Genital mutilation can be sidelined without marginalizing religions, but by marginalizing the specific questionable practices and beliefs that do not work towards a more uniform and egalitarian moral code that respects all people. Enjoy.by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Thanks GDR, one small quibble
Yes again. You're on a roll. Thanks, nice to see agreement.
Except that IMHO any religion that supports female, (that is what we were discussing), genital mutilation should be marginalized. I would say "any belief that supports (male or) female genital mutilation should be marginalized" -- I think it is more appropriate to marginalize\expose specific beliefs that are counter to a more uniform and egalitarian moral code, rather than a whole religion. This would be similar to marginalizing\exposing specific beliefs that are contradicted by scientific evidence (ie- young earth). Enjoy.by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi Otto Tellick, thanks.
I suppose you've probably been over this too many times already (I'm sure Straggler thinks you have), but I hope it won't be taken as off-topic if I ask: what would it take to show (to your satisfaction) that a "supernatural entity is a product of human imagination"? Documentation that shows the specific entity in question was invented. The problem though is not that some supernatural beliefs may be due to imagination, but that Straggles et al claim that ALL supernatural beliefs are due to imagination, and thus far they have not (and apparently cannot) provide the evidence to demonstrate or support that claim. All they are doing is guessing, based on their beliefs.
I suspect that this would actually be quite simple to demonstrate, and that it has probably been demonstrated countless times -- cargo cults in the South Pacific being a fairly recent and reasonably well documented category. Do you consider the creation of gods from imagination to be something demonstrable, or not? Do you think that the specific evidence that shows the cargo cults to be imaginary applies to concepts like the IPU as well? Is there cross-over from one concept to the next?
And are you actually trying to make a point that specific supernatural entities, as described in particular cultures and scriptures, must all be considered to have some non-zero probability of not originating from human imagination? How do you calculate probability when you don't know the possibilities? What I have said is that without specific evidence that {A} does not exist, that one cannot conclude that it does not exist, AND that without specific evidence that {A} does exist, that one cannot conclude that it does exist. This means that either {A} or not{A} is possible. If you cannot show that there is zero probability of supernatural concepts not originating from human imagination, then aren't you de facto admitting a non-zero probability of not originating from human imagination? But "probability" is the wrong word here as it is assumed rather than calculated - better to use possibility. Even then you have problems: If you cannot show that there is zero possibility of supernatural concepts not originating from human imagination, then aren't you de facto admitting a non-zero possibility of not originating from human imagination?
If that's the case, and if I understand you correctly, this would entail that you are proposing we should acknowledge the possibility that any of the countless supernatural entities (indeed any combination thereof) have in fact been described on the basis of something other than imagination ... Can you demonstrate that they don't exist? Can you demonstrate evidence that specifically shows they each are products of human imagination?
... which in turn would entail any variety of suspensions or violations of natural laws. And? Isn't that part of what supernatural means?
... what would it take to show (to your satisfaction) that a "supernatural entity is a product of human imagination"? A means of testing for supernatural presence, so you can apply the test and show empirical (rather than assumed) negative results. Consider Ben Franklin flying his kite in a rain storm without a means to test for the presence of electricity: lightening strikes the kite repeatedly, but in spite of all the bright lights and loud sounds, no electricity is detected. Is it proper to conclude that electricity is not present, or should you conclude that the neither the presence nor absence of electricity in lightening has been adequately supported by evidence, and that (without further evidence) either one is possible?
Is this "moral prime mover" an entity whose existence you would posit, RAZD? (I understand that you were replying to GDR, and I know that he clearly posits a deliberate and conscious entity as the "moral prime mover" -- I'm just wondering whether you share something like his conception.) As a Deist I "posit" the creation of the universe and thus the "natural" laws that govern its operation, including the evolution of thinking rational beings and their subsequent use of intelligence.
Isn't it sufficient to posit that something akin to natural selection, operating on human social/cultural structures, is functioning as the "prime mover"? Or do you want to attribute some notion of awareness, deliberation, plan, etc, on the part of some entity in order to make things move? Sufficient does not mean truth or seeking of truth. Is it sufficient to assume that human imagination is responsible for all supernatural concepts? Doesn't that mean that you stop looking at other possibilities? Atheists complain about the theists "god-did-it" as a get out of jail free card to explain things, and here we see atheists using "human imagination" as a get out of jail free card to explain things, while neither of them is necessarily true. I prefer being an open-minded skeptic -- open-minded in the consideration of the possibility of concepts that are not contradicted by objective empirical evidence, while remaining skeptical of concepts that are not supported by objective empirical evidence.
Indeed, looking at Robert Wright's book "Non-Zero", there seems to be a logical inevitability to the general improvement of the human condition -- despite the never-ending tension between forward and backward impulses, and the frequent lulls and setbacks. No deliberate agency is needed to plan it out, let alone any vague, supernatural entity to serve as such an agent. And we see similar development via evolution of various traits that are increasingly beneficial. Guess the "supernatural entity" did an excellent job of planing and implementing, then. Enjoy.by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi bluegenes, still trying, I see.
Well, indeed. Did you check the pages you've linked to? I did. Curiously they do not affect the definition of pseudoskepticism.
The "dictionary" link actually gives a definition for "Pathological Skepticism" rather than pseudoskeptism. "Pathological skepticism" is (like pseudoskepticism) a phrase thought to have been initially used by sociologist Marcello Truzzi. It's closely related to pseudoskepticism, but there are significant differences. What are those differences? Curiously, you do not provide, show or demonstrate any. I don't see them as being significantly different, but more as synonyms. If you would rather identify yourself as a Pathological Skeptic than a Pseudoskeptic, then I won't stand in your way.
At the bottom of the "dictionary" page, there are five links which purport to give examples of current usage. You have dutifully copied and pasted these in the post I'm replying to. All five link to the same page. This seems to be deliberate, and it's possible that the site owner might be a volunteer author for the "dictionary". Here's the page linked to: http://t.co/t1QJ7QS Which doesn't mean that they aren't valid characteristics of pseudoskepticism. Certainly they are characteristics that you have exhibited, which is what shows you to be a pseudoskeptic.
It is a pseudoscience website. Look around, and we can find a piece by the owner telling us how irreducible complexity has destroyed Darwinism. "Pseudoskeptics", to the author, are scientists who are skeptical of such wonderful "new" scientific ideas. This is hardly what Truzzi mean't. The site's bull, and you should have checked it and spotted this. Curiously, this does not mean that the definition given is bull or that the examples given are bull. You need to show that this is a fact rather than just trying to discredit (oops) the source.
Here are Truzzi's main points about the approach that he wanted to call pseudoskepticism: quote: 1) The tendency to deny, rather than doubt2) Double standards in the application of criticism 3) Tendency to discredit, rather than investigate 4) Presenting insufficient evidence or proof 5) Assuming criticism requires no burden of proof 6) Making unsubstantiated counter-claims 7) Counter-claims based on plausibility rather than empirical evidence 8) Suggesting that unconvincing evidence is grounds for completely dismissing a claim For those wishing to follow RAZD's advice above, and familiarize themselves with "pseudoskepticism" (and also for those who enjoy a good ironic laugh), I'd recommend bearing those 8 points in mind, and starting here. Yes, they describe your posts on that thread quite well, as I have frequently shown. Let's look at the page is linked from the pathological skeptic page:
quote: The astute observer will note that this is the same definition that was provided in the Pseudoskepticism and logic thread, where the term pseudoskeptic was introduced to this forum (and which you tried to discredit rather than refute as well). Compare that to the pathological skepticism definition:
quote: Pseudoskeptics - use scientific-sounding language to disparage or refute given beliefs, theories, or claims, but which in fact fail to follow the precepts of conventional scientific skepticism, and negative hypotheses — theoretical assertions that some belief, theory, or claim is factually wrong — without satisfying the burden of proof that such negative theoretical assertions would require. Pathological skeptics - use scorn, sneering, and ridicule in place of reasoned debate, employ logical fallacies, rhetoric, and numerous dishonest strategies of persuasion, and present a falsely scientific facade that is pseudoscientific. The major difference I can see is that Pathological Skeptics may be a little bit nastier and a little less bound by rational scientific processes with an open-minded evaluation of the possibilities. If you would rather identify yourself as a Pathological Skeptic than a Pseudoskeptic, then I won't stand in your way. Are you ever going to present actual objective empirical evidence showing that any supernatural beings are figments of human imagination, evidence that shows anything of real substance for your hypothetical conjecture? Enjoy.by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi again Straggles,
I noticed that you still have not answered the questions about the various traits one should adopt or avoid in one's approach to ushering in a new age of reason, is there a problem?
The validity of scientific investigation as a route to knowledge is necessarily reliant on rejecting (albeit tentatively) untestable propositions which negate our confidence in empirical evidence. Do I need to remind you that you have provided a logical proof demonstrating that any such rejection of untestable claims is logically invalid and pseudoskeptical? Please don't imply that your personal opinions are the basis of scientific inquiry or the philosophy of science. It really is a wonder that you fail to understand the issues here when you have had so many opportunities to read them. Of course you would need to let go of some preconceptions.
RAZD writes: As a result of the logical analysis we have: You have deductively proved the logical invalidity of science itself. Or have you changed your mind about the logical validity of rejecting inherently untestable claims? Nope, I have shown why science is necessarily tentative and that there are different degrees. You also obliviously miss the element of objective empirical evidence in the logical breakdown I presented which I've shown in this version:
For a more general use we may want to consider the following scale for concepts in general:
Without sufficient supporting or contradicting evidence:
Then we can discuss the pros and cons of these categories and their value in ushering in a new age of reason. For example we can consider the evidence for evolution and conclude that we have a strong conviction that it is true. However, it appears that the important element that you seem to have missed previously is this:
quote: Underlining added for emphasis. The existence of objective empirical evidence changes the logic involved:
and
And seeing as X(a) cannot be more likely true than false (there IS contradictory evidence) == it IS less likely to be true than false, so there is no contradiction. AND, of course, science relies HEAVILY on objective empirical evidence, evidence that is used to contradict\invalidate false hypothesis.
Where do you place yourself on your own scale of belief above with regard to the untestable notion that all of the evidence on which our scientific conclusions are based is the result of false memories implanted when the universe was created 1 second ago? I place myself as a 5, as you would understand if you actually read my positions. Obviously we cannot know for sure, we cannot test, but we can have opinions, and my personal opinion is that it is false. This is no different than making the base foundational a priori assumption of science that objective empirical evidence represents reality, a position that cannot be tested and that we cannot be sure is more or less likely to be true. Everything may be illusion, as the Buddhists say, we don't know. When it comes to doing science we operate within the shell of the a priori assumption regarding evidence:
You can't answer this without fundamentally contradicting yourself can you? Sorry to disappoint. Enjoy * because this is within the a priori assumption shell you cannot end up at a 1 or a 7 Edited by RAZD, : added new scale Edited by RAZD, : revised new scale for clarity Edited by RAZD, : colorsby our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi GDR, thought I'd drop in another note.
I don't see it as simple as that. For example if someone is being charitable for the approval of others but wouldn't be if there was no one who would know about it, then the act is the same but one is moral and one isn't. Also, a point I have made before, if a Christian sends a $100.00 anonymously to the third world with the notion that this gets God on his side it is less moral than the atheist who anonymously sends $100.00 to the third world. Morality is not just about what we do. Has anyone asked the question that: if your system and their system end up with the same results, whether there is a real problem or only the perception of a problem? For example the golden rule: we find this in virtually every religion and in every culture -- does the source render this invalid if it is from a religion but not invalid if it is derived from enlightened self-interest and game theory alone?
In other words evangelical atheism is going to have to out evangelize Christians, Muslims etc Is it necessary for every single sub-culture around the world to have the same plain vanilla homogeneous morality? If the goal is a society based on reason, then it would seem reasonable that there are many ways to accomplish that, and that not all of them need to be based on the evangelical atheist agenda. When you go to a foreign country you are expected to comply with the laws of that particular country rather than the laws of your home country. Why would morality be any different: when in Rome do as the Romans. Enjoy.by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi again GDR,
Straggler writes: Then in this hypothetical 'Age of Reason' we wouldn't treat the bible (or indeed any other similarly interpretable holy book) as anything other than an expression of both the good and the bad of already existing human morality would we? On one level that is true, but on the other hand I see it as a record of God interacting within creation and most specifically through Jesus Christ. It does tell us that there is ultimate purpose, and that this world is not going to end some day with not so much as a memory left. My take on this issue is that it just does not matter what source is used in the development of personal morals (and all morals are personal when you come down to it -- moral behavior is what you do when no-one is looking kind of thing). In this regard any system for "Ushering in a New Age of Reason" that prohibited the use of some source material is just as dogmatic hide-bound and close-minded as the fundamentalist that claims their source must be used. What matters is consilience with the moral beliefs of the people in the society where you live, so that there is general agreement on acceptable behavior and unacceptable behavior. You don't need to be 100% in agreement, just in agreement on most issues and general agreement on the most important issues, and have the freedom and liberty to live by your personal beliefs where they differ. Likewise, different social groups do not need to be 100% in agreement with other social groups, they just need consilience within their social group and with any individuals\people\groups that cross-over\visit\immigrate\interact from other social groups. Morality is self-regulation, rather than group (external) regulation. My reference to "when in Rome do as the Romans" was not to say that morality and laws are the same, but that they both attempt to regulate behavior with the goal of reducing social conflicts and disruption of the social group/s. As an example, people go to Vegas to engage in behavior that is not acceptable in their home social group, and when they leave, they leave that behavior behind as well ("What happens in Vegas, stays in Vegas"). In a "Legendary New Age of Reason" one could even argue that laws would not be necessary, because personal moral beliefs would accomplish the same ends -- rational people would choose specific behaviors rather than have laws to regulate them and then have to enforce laws. The group regulation is accomplished by the consilience of moral beliefs of all the people making up the group. Enjoy. Edited by RAZD, : kind not kid, vegasby our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1435 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi GDR, thanks.
... There has to be an overlap between societies as well. My society may hold to loving one's neighbour but if my neighbouring society feels that it ok to slaughter thy neighbour there just might be problems. I thought I covered that:
quote: Peace.by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click)
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