Where did the Egyptians come from ?

In the Bible there are only 367 years from the Flood
to mention of Egypt and a Pharoah.The genealogy of all of Noah's offspring's offspring
is laid out, and none of them are said to found
Egypt.Where did the Egyptian high culture come from in such a
short space of time ?

Comparing it to the current age, 367 years ago it was 1635. Is the difference between 1635 and 2002 less than that between Creation and Egypt's golden age?--Percy

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Originally posted by Percipient:
Comparing it to the current age, 367 years ago it was 1635. Is the difference between 1635 and 2002 less than that between Creation and Egypt's golden age?

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--Percy

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As it reads to me, the problem isn't with the level of cultural advancement per se, but with the truly massive labor force required to make that civilization possible. I tried a time or two to find good estimate's of Egypt's population at the time, but I haven't found anything and don't have time to look right now. But think about not only the numbers needed to create the monuments but also the labor force needed to feed those workers, and pay them as they seem not to have been slaves after all. This work force also had to provide enough surplus that the purchase of materials was possible, as some of it came from outside Egypt.Egypt also had trades. This is important because you need a work force to feed those as well. They aren't growing their own food, at least not all of it. This type of structure doesn't pop up in three hundred years, four hundred years, or even a thousand.The analogy between the 1600 and now doesn't fit as that change rides upon an existing work force and massive social structure. Sure there is a lot of change but the variables are radically different.John------------------
www.hells-handmaiden.com

Ah, I see. So while the last 400 years up till today has represented more change then perhaps any other historical period of similar length, the supposed change between Creation and the Egypt of 400 years later was much greater. Your questioning whether it is reasonable to postulate this.I'll let a YEC answer this one.--Percy

Hi Peter,
I will at some stage try to return to the other thread. Quite busy at the moment.
But a question here. How are you arriving at 367 years?
Which chronology of the post flood patriarchs are you using?

quote:

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Originally posted by Percipient:
Comparing it to the current age, 367 years ago it was 1635. Is the difference between 1635 and 2002 less than that between Creation and Egypt's golden age?

​

--Percy

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Suppose there were only four couples in 1635 ... do you think
we would have the world we have today ?

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Originally posted by dreaded s flynn:
Hi Peter,
I will at some stage try to return to the other thread. Quite busy at the moment.
But a question here. How are you arriving at 367 years?
Which chronology of the post flood patriarchs are you using?

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I added it up in Genesis in the KJV.

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Originally posted by Peter:
I added it up in Genesis in the KJV.

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King james may be the most corrupt for genesis, as it uses the massoretic text. Check out the articles on the other thread.Later............sean

While your on the topic of biblical translations, I've been looking for a place to see the hebrew text (in the english alphabet) of Genesis and maybe some type of hebrew dictionary. I'm not sure if anything like this is on the internet but it would be useful for anyone regarding correct translation.------------------

quote:

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Originally posted by dreaded s flynn:
King james may be the most corrupt for genesis, as it uses the massoretic text. Check out the articles on the other thread.

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Later............sean

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The argument here is about Biblical accuracy and inerrancy ...
from your post it would suggest that the accuracy and inerrancy
is well known to be non-existent.If different versions of the Bible would yield different dates
then some versions of the Bible are inaccurate and therefore
NOT inerrant.That being the case, how do we know which ones to accept ?Is there a currently accepted definitive Bible ?Who decided that that was the case ?

quote:

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Originally posted by dreaded s flynn:
King james may be the most corrupt for genesis, as it uses the massoretic text. Check out the articles on the other thread.

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Later............sean

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I had a quick check of different versions of the Bible using the
BlueNote website ... I cannot see any particular discreprancy with
the durations that I have used from KJV to work out the
time between the Flood and the existence of Egyptian pharoahs.

quote:

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Originally posted by Peter:
I had a quick check of different versions of the Bible using the
BlueNote website ... I cannot see any particular discreprancy with
the durations that I have used from KJV to work out the
time between the Flood and the existence of Egyptian pharoahs.

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All english versions now use the massoretic text. The LXX (which tends to agree alot more with the DSS) reads differently. The LXX agrees with lukes geneology whilst the massoretic text does not!
Some early christians (such as Justin martyr in his 'dialogue with trypho' accused the jews of changing the hebrew text.It's quite a complicated subject, too much to go into in a short space here. (and the texts agree 99% of the time). But a good place to start might be the links I provided on the other thread.
If you have any particular questions I will try to help.p.s. I will disclose I am a firm believer in the reliability of the OT in it's historical content, but as with all ancient texts they never come to us perfectly. one of the few obviously imperfect parts are the various versions of genesis 5 and 11.sean

According to the first link you gave in the other thread,
the time from the Flood to Abraham is 292 years, which is
the same as the time span in KJV.KJV then has 75 years before the event which involves an
Egyptian pharoah.So I still get 367 years.Still, this issue has raised more problems for biblical
inerrancy debates, as we now need to ONLY look at Hebrew
versions if other versions have had numbers tweaked, then
what else has been tweaked for convenience ?

Hebrew is not a difficult language actually, 'cept for that reading it backwards part. The grammar is simple, in my humble opinion and all, so its just a matter of vocabulary. And I don't know of any online comprehensive resources, but I have a book-- yech! I know they can be useful but I can never get the hyperlinks to work.Take care.------------------
www.hells-handmaiden.com

According the the Hebrew version of the Bible, there
is STILL only 367 years between the Flood and a
Pharoah in Egypt.So my original question remains (assuming none is going
to dispute a genealogy from Hebrew sources).