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Author | Topic: What we must accept if we accept materialism | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||
robinrohan Inactive Member |
And then there's idealism: everything's mental. That would solve the problem of how the physical could evolve into the mental. The physical is really mental.
There's only one problem with idealism: it's unbelievable.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
Eastern religions seem to be idealistic in their metaphysics--"maya" and all that.
Western religions are dualistic. One can't be a materialist and believe in God, I don't think.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
2. Secondly, the premise that a freely-chosen action must be uncaused is false. In fact, if you think about it, if someone did act without cause you would consider them insane rather than free (thanks to the philosopher Donald Davidson for this argument); You seem to be confusing 2 different types of "cause"--the logical and the physical. They do not go together.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
There's no such thing as 'logical' causation. Well, yes, but what I meant was that one might argue that you can do something as a result of a logical train of thought. Through a series of deductions, you decide to buy a particular car. You have a ground and a consequent. But if the series of logical thoughts are CAUSED in a physical sense, then the resulting belief ("I should buy this car") came about as a result of automatic physical reactions to stimuli and so was not arrived at as a result of a logical thought. Perhaps it is quite logical to buy the car--it's a great deal--but to say the belief was arrived at logically would be incorrect. It's just seemed to be arrived at in that fashion. This message has been edited by robinrohan, 02-09-2006 03:25 PM
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
1. If man can do anything he wants, there is nothing to keep him from doing evil; There's nothing to keep him from doing good either. No reason why we should concentrate on evil.
Other objective criteria can be derived from general principles such as the following: Such criteria are hardly objective. They have no ground. Just something we thought up. This is true of all moral systems. It is prudent to adopt some code, however, with the recognition that it's just something we've adopted. We might as well have adopted some other code. This message has been edited by robinrohan, 02-10-2006 09:44 AM
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
Why the idea of PHYSICAL causation is important. It wouldn't HAVE to be physical. It just happens to be.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
What makes it prudent? It's prudent in a practical sense to adopt the code of one's culture. It's also a comfort to have some code to live by. I have a moral code, in that, given any situation, I go by what feels like the right thing to do--unless I do the wrong thing (sometimes I act immorally according to my code, but the fault is with me not the code itself). My code consists of "honorable" and "dishonorable" actions. Intellectual dishonesty, for example, according to my code, is "dishonorable." Not much of a code, but better than nothing.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
I would assume you are basing your code on something other than your mere feelings about things. No, that's all I'm basing it on--my feelings. There isn't anything else to base it on. It has no rational basis.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
Psychologically speaking I don't think anybody really believes that morality is subjective, only give lip service to the idea. From the standpoint of people's feelings, I agree. Morals do not FEEL subjective.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
What kind of thing would be an acceptable ground to you? God might be a ground.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
How would God provide an acceptable ground for you? One needs an absolute standard. If you had one you could figure out if any given action was moral or immoral. The concept of God admittedly presents what appears to be a logical problem as regards morals. But still, if there was a God, and we knew His standard, perhaps we could call that an absolute.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
Please explain. It's that old paradox about whether some action is good because God thinks it is or whether some action is good in and of itself and God approves of it. If the latter, then this would indicate that God is adhering to a standard, and so that standard would not have been created by Him. It would be logically anterior to Him. Obviously we can't have that. If the former, then if God had thought that murder was good, then murder would be good. Some respond with the statement, "God IS goodness," but this strikes me as a verbal dodge.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
How would God let you know what his standard was? He might call a meeting.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
Unless you've received knowledge about that standard through a personal revelation from God, then you have to accept the word of someone else that a particular moral standard is God's standard. How does that provide the absolute certainty that you require? My moral standards would have come from God in the first place. There would be no doubt about the standard. It would be as inescapable as a mathematical formula.
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robinrohan Inactive Member |
Would that apply just to you or to everybody? It would apply like 2 plus 2 make 4. But since this is not the state of affiars, then we have no grounds for morality. One system is as good as another, logically speaking. Practically and culturally speaking, of course, we have to follow the dictates of the tribe.
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