Playing devil's advocate for a minute, just for fun.....
It seems to me that the biggest YEC objection to this is that you are assuming uniformitarianism; that the process has always been as it is now. Forgetting for the moment that that is really the only reasonable assumption in the absense of evidence to the contrary -- i.e., that things work pretty much now as they always have worked -- what evidence is there to show that things have always worked as they do now? In other words, can we prove (in the scientific sense of the word) that hydrologic conductivity is the same now as it always have been?
Please answer, as much as possible, in words of one syllable or less; hydrology isn't my strong suit. Also, for purposes of your response, you may assume that I will read your answer, evaluate it for reasonableness, logic, and evidentiary support, and not simply dismiss it because it conflicts with preconceived notions I have based on 2,000-6,000 year old mythology.
Oh, you can also assume that I am not an advocate of Last Thursdayism. (I've always hated Thursdays, much fonder of Wednesdays.)
Those who would sacrifice an essential liberty for a temporary security will lose both, and deserve neither. -- Benjamin Franklin
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