Hello to everyone,
{The reason such a view (whether it is an evolutionary one, or the Gap Theory) is unacceptable to the serious Biblical student, is because the Bible teaches that there was no death before the sin of Adam. Romans 5:12 states that, 'Just as sin came into the world though on man, and death came through sin, and so death spread through sin to all because all have sinned.' Those not familiar with the Bible may wonder: If death came to all because of one man's sin then who was this man who sinned first? 1 Corinthians 15:21 answers this, 'For since death came through a human being, the resurrection of the dead has also come through a human being, for as all die in Adam so all will be made alive in Christ.}
Reading 1 Corinthians 15:21, it seems that the death here refers to human beings. The original intent may have been for animals to die and human beings to live forever, by being allowed to eat fruit from the tree of life, but only if they obeyed and did not eat the fruit from the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Does this book the bible refer to animals being resurrected when Christ returns? I am not very well versed in the bible so I don’t know. If it does not, then the death and resurrection referred to above may be for man (human beings).
{For there was no sin before Adam and so no death}
Was not Satan in the garden to aid in the fall of man by saying what he said to Eve? By Eve’s own admission she blamed the serpent, which I understand to be Satan. My point is that if Satan was in the garden right after man was created to aid in their fall, he had already rebelled against God. So he sinned before Adam and Eve.
{To solve this problem (accepting both Genesis and the geological column) they state that God re-shaped the earth and recreated all life in six literal days, which took place after Lucifer's flood. Thinking he has solved the problem by introducing Lucifer's flood, in fact he has removed the reason for which he had proposed the theory in the first place. If all of the sediments and fossils were produced quickly by one massive worldwide flood then the evidence that the earth is extremely old is gone.}
If Thomas Chalmers theory is correct there would have been eons of time, before the Lucifer flood, to produce the slow formation of sediments as seen in the geological column. This would make for an old earth.
{Interestingly, Lucifer's flood left earth inundated with water and with darkness covering all. To produce such results would have taken nothing less than a global explosion, blowing billions of tons of debris into the sky to blow out the sun and blot all the rest of the solid earth down into the ocean. Such an explosion would have obliterated the sedimentary crust and all of its fossils, thus leaving no evidence of the geological ages, which the gap theorist is attempting to accommodate by proposing such a flood.}
It is interesting, but I don’t see how anyone could prove that this is what needed to happen.
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