Although I am very interested in seeing this discussion played out and having some part, I must admit there is some hesitance due to the potential confusion. It should be obvious, but in case not, I am "apostolos" a greek word meaning sent one, not "Apostle" the english transliteration of that word. Also, I always include my first name at the end of my posts.
Now, jumping right in I would like to deal with a quote and make one observation.
quote:
Okay I will abide by that however for purposes of clarity do we consider the bible to be literal if it is to be inerrant?
The answer is yes, most times. Please understand I do not seek to confuse you or undermine the authority of the text of the Bible. I think it would be understood, however, that saying the Bible is to be taken literally can be taken to a literal extreme. For example, my name is not really "apostolos", rather I am expressing some part of my self by taking on that name. So with scripture, there are portions that are figurative examples, or poetic devices, or prophetical utterances. The point is that I think the answer to your question is that in making an interpretation of the scriptures, one must apply a practice conservative investigation which rests heavily on context. Mind you that is not just the context of the passage, the book or the whole Bible, but can go further to mean historical and cultural contexts at the time the events took place or were recorded (because the two are often not one). Thinking about this post, I am fearing it has been somewhat confusing thus far. I hope that will be cleared up over time if it is not clear now.
My one observation is that I have read much assumption from the (if you will grant me the term) anti-Bible side. I know that is an inaccurate term to use, so please excuse my lack of grammatical efficiency and provide for me a more appropriate term to use. Now, I mean that the "conclusions" that are being stated so far concerning the Bible's errancy seem to be very much based on some kind of assumption. I would list them here but it would honestly be too long, I feel, for an introductory post. My point is just to call this to the surface of everyone's attention.
Before you say I am like the "pot calling the kettle black", let me say that Genesis 1:1 begins with God's
pre-existence. Some may call that an assumption. That's fine, I do not for some very logical reasons that I will not expand on at this time. The point is that the person beginning this thread, while it is "all of ours", is willingly taking on questions concerning discrepancy from a Biblical standpoint (at least that is my hope). I don't know how much help I will be to this whole matter, but at least grant us the priveledge of answering questions from the perspective of belief that is ours.
Russ