Does the bible condemn homosexuality?

Leviticus 18:22 - "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination."
That sounds pretty much like homosexuality. I must confess I am confused with statements on this thread that there is no concept of homosexuality in the Old Testament.

Rrhain, the Bible did not say that loving someone of the same sex is a sin. Nowhere does it equate that with homosexuality.[This message has been edited by defenderofthefaith, 11-17-2003]

On what basis do you state this? 18:22 is in the middle of a chapter regarding sexual laws and not anything specifically to do with the temple. It's a basic commandment. Considering the rules and regulations elsewhere to cover every possible loophole, why did this particular verse mention just any two of the same sex lying with each other? Strong's Exhaustive Concordance defines to'evah as "something disgusting... i.e. (as noun) an abhorrence... abominable... abomination..." The word is a form of ta'ab, meaning to loathe, detest, abhor. {Strong, J. The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible. McLean, Virginia: MacDonald Publishing Company.}
All that on top of the normal "You shall not" beginning a prohibitive commandment. Whatever homosexuality's other characteristics may be, the Bible is talking specifically about having sex with someone of the same sex, because that is what it says in the verse. It is very careful to define that simply. The Bible does not bother about whether they love each other and stay together for life. All it's doing is prohibiting lying together. You might define what it's prohibiting as "homosexual sex." Two men who love each other and live together are not necessarily doing this, nor necessarily homosexual in nature. They could be father and son.[This message has been edited by defenderofthefaith, 11-17-2003]

I don't have time to respond in full to you, Rrhain, but that concordance entry does not mention anything about a connection with ritual practices. To'evah means simply an abomination. Here is the entire entry:

Obviously for Leviticus 18:22 to be referring to something that happens in the temple, the entire chapter must be referring to temple prostitution. Nowhere does it make this clear. How did you come to the conclusion that it does, Rrhain?If the entire chapter is about temple practices, were the customs of bestiality in 18:23 also ritually committed in pagan temples?If 18:22 refers to temple prostitutes, why doesn't it just say "Thou shalt not lie with a temple prostitute?" Why does it specifically forbid men lying with men? Does this mean the priests could lie with female temple prostitutes?A "custom" does not necessarily suggest a temple ritual, just something that you habitually do. It suggests, as per the concordance, that homosexuality is a 'disgusting custom'.Finally, if the Bible does forbid homosexuality, why do you care?

Rrhain, do you have an answer for the rest of the points I made in my last message?And by the way... Aschemosune apparently means the vagina only by association with unseemliness. In other words, they called the female genitalia unseemly. Since the word is here used as an adjective, referring to a relationship between men, I cannot see how it would refer to the vagina. Here is the concordance entry: The only other time aschemosune is used is in the context of what love does not do: "Love suffers long and is kind; love does not envy; love does not parade itself, is not puffed up; does not behave rudely, does not seek its own, is not provoked, thinks no evil..." (1 Corinthians 13:4-5)Besides, the rest of Romans 1:25-32 shows that homosexuals were indeed known of - it reders to men 'leaving the natural use of the woman' and burning 'in their lust one toward another', mentioning this act as 'unseemly', an 'error' and 'against nature'. He also lists all manner of other sins in the same passage.

Hello Rrhain.I remembered I had an involvement in this thread back in the mists of the vapours. Do you have a response to Message 159 yet - the one about aschemosune?