With regard to what possible time periods the name (which seems to have once been a verb)could have come from.
Example.
I always heard c1200 BCE but historic grammar's(especially in English) are pretty much not avaliable.Most people,that have studied just a little Hebrew, can easily tell that III-H verbs were once III-Y (well its easy to tell since the grammar's always point out the reason for the appearing "Y"s and explain that they reflect an archaic form of the word left over,though I guess it isnt THAT obvious).
I am interested in what kind of West-Semitic examples we have extant that can show us precise historical developments step by step.There are the Amarna tablets which have many branching dialects that use Akkadian words, but Canaanite syntax and morphology (differs from seperate regions,even the Amarna tablets arent 1 of 1 unified grammar).A very odd situation where an international language (Akkadian) developed into a hybrid language in Palestine.We have lots of tablets to document this distorted dialect(s).Brill even has a 4 volume grammar produced detailing it(it is so technical that it is unreal,better have Wikipedia ready for linguistic definitions).
I doubt anybody can clearly pin down exactly when changes took place.Most of the historic Grammar process is theoretical especially when giving broad time periods saying exactly when change took place.One Canaanite dialect (there could have been hundreds of branches) could have begun a change LONG before it was documented in writing and/or diffused over a wide non-local base.
But, that aside. I am wondering if there has been any discussions on the "YHWH" name.
Thanks!
™ Version 4.2
