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Author Topic:   Biblical contradictions II
John
Inactive Member


Message 251 of 307 (49626)
08-09-2003 1:45 PM
Reply to: Message 237 by Theologian63
08-09-2003 1:00 PM


Re: Hmmm.....
quote:
My source is God's word.
I have a source too-- the Rig Veda. It is god's word and it is older than your book too. So there! It is not opinion either. It is easy to make assertions. Why should I take yours over any other?
quote:
see my avitar
Yes, that is twisted. You should read de Sade. He has a bit a crucifiction fetish also.
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This message is a reply to:
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John
Inactive Member


Message 252 of 307 (49627)
08-09-2003 1:48 PM
Reply to: Message 242 by Theologian63
08-09-2003 1:21 PM


Re: Did Joshua Stop the Sun?
quote:
If you choose not to accept it then so be it. It doesn't change it though.
No. It does not change what actually happened. The point is to find out what actually happened. Merely stating what you believe is pointless.
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This message is a reply to:
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John
Inactive Member


Message 257 of 307 (49633)
08-09-2003 2:09 PM
Reply to: Message 255 by Theologian63
08-09-2003 1:57 PM


quote:
So the law makers must hold the Bible as a valid source of morality and standards.
Obviously.
quote:
BTW, in what dies ut affect your life?
You know the answer to this. It is in your previous sentence.
quote:
I thought it was full of contradictions?
And this matters, why?
Take this to a new thread if you want to continue in this vein. Admin is getting test-ie.
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John
Inactive Member


Message 258 of 307 (49634)
08-09-2003 2:10 PM
Reply to: Message 256 by Pogo
08-09-2003 2:06 PM


Re: god's fault? Maybe...
I could tell much the same story.
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John
Inactive Member


Message 262 of 307 (49638)
08-09-2003 2:26 PM
Reply to: Message 245 by Theologian63
08-09-2003 1:32 PM


Re: JACK CHICK?!??
quote:
There is no such thing as "King James". It's called Elizabethan English and the Thees and Thous were put in to show the difference between the singular and plural when referring to God.
You do know that no one ever spoke the English of the KJV? The grammar and vocabulary is a hodge-podge of language drawn from old translations and then modern English.
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Replies to this message:
 Message 263 by Theologian63, posted 08-09-2003 2:29 PM John has replied

John
Inactive Member


Message 264 of 307 (49642)
08-09-2003 2:35 PM
Reply to: Message 263 by Theologian63
08-09-2003 2:29 PM


Re: JACK CHICK?!??
quote:
Isn't that a little off topic?
Yes, it is. It is just a bit of trivia, really. We could discuss the KJV if you want. It isn't my favorite translation, but the most irritating thing about it is the number of KJV-only people there are.
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This message is a reply to:
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Replies to this message:
 Message 265 by Theologian63, posted 08-09-2003 2:50 PM John has replied

John
Inactive Member


Message 268 of 307 (49647)
08-09-2003 3:02 PM
Reply to: Message 265 by Theologian63
08-09-2003 2:50 PM


Re: JACK CHICK?!??
quote:
What facts support your comments about the KJV?
Jacques Barzun, "From Dawn to Decadence, Vol. 2." I am not sure what page because my copy is an audio book. Jacques Barzun, in case you are wondering, is an uncontraversially respected historian, as far as I can tell. He seems to be a decent source.
Bartleby.com:
quote:
Here's a bit of trivia: Where is the final residence of liars?
Aren't said liars joined in that final residence by those who make false accusations?
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[This message has been edited by John, 08-09-2003]

This message is a reply to:
 Message 265 by Theologian63, posted 08-09-2003 2:50 PM Theologian63 has not replied

John
Inactive Member


Message 302 of 307 (49746)
08-10-2003 12:49 PM
Reply to: Message 278 by Theologian63
08-10-2003 7:22 AM


quote:
It's fallacious since we know MANY of the biblical authors.
Not true, despite the christian apologetics, we know very few of the Bible's authors and even where we suspect to know who the author was, we know little about that person. You really should learn your subject.
Take James:
James wrote James
Not likely. It wasn't known until the end of the 2nd century, so even if the author were named James, he wasn't James the brother of Jesus as is tradition.
James
Revelation, John I-III:
The attribution of these books to John the Apostle was challenged as early as the 2nd century AD-- the second century beginning ten years after the book was written. And ...
Most Biblical scholars point to the many differences in the style, vocabulary and theology between Revelation and the Gospel of John. They conclude that Revelation was written by an unknown author - perhaps a Jewish Christian whose primary language was Aramaic.
 Book of Revelation - understanding it, topics covered, Jesus
Psalms:
The Jewish psalms were written during the various monarchies, prior to the exile of 586 BCE. The unknown persons who edited the Psalms tended to attribute to David all psalms which were written during the era of the Monarchy, regardless of their actual authorship. A few of the psalms can be dated because they with specific historical events. Actual authorship is mostly unknown.
BOOKS OF THE HEBREW SCRIPTURES (OLD TESTAMENT): POETRY & WISDOM
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John
Inactive Member


Message 303 of 307 (49749)
08-10-2003 12:57 PM
Reply to: Message 285 by Theologian63
08-10-2003 9:45 AM


quote:
This is fallacious on the ground of Heresay.
Can you provide a source that says Moses did not write the Torah?

Have you never actually researched your subject? Scholars noted this in the 18oo's. For a quick run-down...
No webpage found at provided URL: http://www.straightdope.com/mailbag/mbible1.html
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John
Inactive Member


Message 304 of 307 (49750)
08-10-2003 1:20 PM
Reply to: Message 299 by ConsequentAtheist
08-10-2003 11:27 AM


Re: Check your sources!
quote:
Very well - name ten where the term was employed.
Easton's Bible Dictionary writes:
(Heb. mashiah), in all the thirty-nine instances of its occurring in the Old Testament, is rendered by the LXX. "Christos." It means anointed. Thus priests #Ex 28:41 40:15 Nu 3:3 prophets #1Ki 19:16 and kings #1Sa 9:16 16:3 2Sa 12:7 were anointed with oil, and so consecrated to their respective offices.
quote:
Are you claiming that (1) Tacitus was referring to some other movement, and/or that (2) the reference was a later interpolation?
Neither. The suggestion is that Tacitus was relaying what the Christians themselves believed-- that their movement was founded by a real man named Jesus. That the Christians believed this does not make it true. It is pretty simple logic really.
quote:
Doesn't it make more sense that he was simply relying on current (i.e., early 2nd century CE) Christian sources?
That is exactly the point. This means one now has to drop Tacitus and go about verifying those Christian sources. That is the trick. There aren't any sources outside the Christian movement. We can reasonably expect internal sources to be biased. If there is a car wreck, who do you believe? The person who caused the wreck and who may be trying to save his skin? The victim of the wreck who may be trying to stiff the insurance company? Or the witness who has nothing to gain or to lose?
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